A client is scheduled for a prostatectomy, and the anesthesiologist plans to use a spinal (sub-arachnoid) block during surgery. In the operating room, the nurse positions the client according to the anesthesiologist’s instructions. Why does the client require special positioning for this type of anesthesia?

Questions 75

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Fundamentals of Nursing Nursing Process Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client is scheduled for a prostatectomy, and the anesthesiologist plans to use a spinal (sub-arachnoid) block during surgery. In the operating room, the nurse positions the client according to the anesthesiologist’s instructions. Why does the client require special positioning for this type of anesthesia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. 1. Positioning is crucial to prevent CSF leakage as the spinal block is administered into the sub-arachnoid space where CSF is present. 2. Incorrect Answers: A: Positioning is not related to preventing confusion in this context. C: Seizures are not typically associated with spinal block anesthesia. D: Cardiac arrhythmias are not directly impacted by the client's positioning for a spinal block.

Question 2 of 9

Other signs of hypovolemia includes all of the following except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because decreased pulse rate and widened pulse pressure are not signs of hypovolemia. In hypovolemia, the body tries to compensate by increasing the heart rate and narrowing the pulse pressure to maintain adequate blood flow. A is incorrect as dry mucous membranes and soft eyeballs are signs of dehydration. B is incorrect as increased hematocrit and hemoglobin are indicators of hemoconcentration in hypovolemia. D is incorrect as increased lethargy and confusion can be seen in severe hypovolemia due to poor perfusion of vital organs.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse completes a thorough database and carries out nursing interventions based on priority diagnoses. Which action will the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Evaluation. After implementing nursing interventions based on priority diagnoses, the nurse must evaluate the effectiveness of these interventions to determine if the desired outcomes have been achieved. Evaluation is crucial to assess the progress, make necessary modifications, and ensure the effectiveness of the care provided. Assessment (A) is already completed before interventions are carried out. Planning (B) involves developing a care plan based on assessment findings. Implementation (C) is the actual carrying out of the interventions. Therefore, the next step after implementing nursing interventions is to evaluate their effectiveness.

Question 4 of 9

Which method of data collection will the nurse use to establish a patient’s database?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Performing a physical examination. This method allows the nurse to gather comprehensive data about the patient's health status, including vital signs, physical appearance, and potential health issues. It provides valuable information for developing an individualized care plan. Reviewing literature (A) is important but not for establishing a patient's database. Checking orders (B) and ordering medications (D) are part of the treatment process and do not directly contribute to establishing the initial patient database.

Question 5 of 9

Which method of data collection will the nurse use to establish a patient’s database?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Performing a physical examination. This method allows the nurse to collect objective data directly from the patient, which is crucial in establishing a comprehensive patient database. By assessing the patient's physical condition, the nurse can gather vital information such as vital signs, overall health status, and potential areas of concern. Reviewing literature (A) and checking orders for tests (B) may provide additional insights but are not direct data collection methods. Ordering medications (D) is a treatment intervention, not a data collection method.

Question 6 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client with type I diabetes mellitus who exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is still conscious. The nurse should first administer:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate such as orange juice. In this scenario, the client is experiencing hypoglycemia, which can lead to confusion and abnormal behavior. Administering fast-acting carbohydrates like orange juice will help quickly raise the blood sugar levels. This is the first-line treatment for conscious patients with hypoglycemia. Choice A (I.M. or subcutaneous glucagon) is used for unconscious patients or when oral intake is not possible. Choice B (I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%) is too aggressive for a conscious patient and may lead to complications. Choice D (10 U of fast-acting insulin) would further lower the blood sugar levels and worsen the situation. Administering fast-acting carbohydrates is the safest and most effective approach for conscious patients with hypoglycemia to quickly raise their blood sugar levels and resolve their symptoms.

Question 7 of 9

A client with advanced liver cancer is scheduled for chemotherapy. As part of the chemotherapy regimen, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5 FU [Fluoroplex]). Fluorouracil is commonly used in chemotherapy for liver cancer to inhibit cancer cell growth. It is a pyrimidine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis. Fluoxymesterone (A) is an androgen used in hormone replacement therapy, not in liver cancer treatment. Tamoxifen (C) is an antiestrogen used in breast cancer treatment, not liver cancer. Megestrol (D) is a progestin used in hormone therapy for breast cancer and endometrial cancer, not liver cancer. Therefore, the correct choice is B as it directly targets cancer cell growth in liver cancer treatment.

Question 8 of 9

Within 20 minutes of the start of transfusion, the client develops a sudden fever. What is the nurse’s first action?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stop the transfusion. This is the first action the nurse should take because the sudden fever could indicate a transfusion reaction. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Continuing to monitor vital signs (choice C) may delay necessary intervention. Forcing fluids (choice A) could worsen the situation if it is a reaction to the transfusion. Increasing the flow rate of IV fluids (choice B) is not indicated as the priority is to stop the transfusion to prevent a potential adverse event.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is teaching a client who will be discharged soon how to change a sterile dressing on the right leg. During the teaching session, the nurse notices redness, swelling and induration at the wound site. What do these signs suggest?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presence of redness, swelling, and induration at the wound site are indicative of infection. Redness and swelling suggest inflammation, while induration indicates tissue hardening and can be a sign of infection spreading. Infection can delay healing and lead to complications if not treated promptly. Evisceration refers to wound opening with protrusion of internal organs, not indicated by the symptoms. Dehiscence is the partial or complete separation of wound layers, not represented by the symptoms. Hemorrhage involves excessive bleeding, which is not described in the scenario. Therefore, choice A is correct as it aligns with the signs observed and is the most appropriate response for the situation.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days