ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is receiving the cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because thiotepa is a cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent that interferes with both DNA replication and RNA transcription. Thiotepa works by cross-linking DNA strands, leading to inhibition of DNA replication and transcription, ultimately causing cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against actively dividing cells, such as cancer cells. Choice A is incorrect because thiotepa does not interfere with DNA replication alone. Choice B is incorrect because thiotepa affects both DNA replication and RNA transcription, not just RNA transcription. Choice D is incorrect because thiotepa does not destroy the cell membrane; instead, it acts on the genetic material within the cell.
Question 2 of 9
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates hypoventilation, which is a potential adverse effect of morphine. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure or arrest. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours is not directly related to morphine's adverse effects. Morphine can cause urinary retention, not increased voiding. C: Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within normal range and not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Morphine can cause bradycardia or tachycardia, but not irregular heart rate specifically. D: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its effect on the central nervous system. This finding does not suggest an adverse effect; it is an expected pharmac
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is teaching the staff about the benefits of Nursing Outcomes Classification. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Nursing Outcomes Classification adds objectivity to judging a patient's progress by providing standardized criteria for assessing outcomes. This helps in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and tracking improvements accurately. Other choices are incorrect: A is wrong because Nursing Outcomes Classification includes 7 domains but not necessarily for level 1; B is incorrect as it uses a 5-point Likert scale, not a 3-point scale; and D is inaccurate because Nursing Outcomes Classification guides the selection of interventions based on the identified outcomes, not allowing complete freedom in choosing interventions.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is developing nursing diagnoses for a group of patients. Which nursing diagnoses will the nurse use? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety related to barium enema. This is the correct choice because nursing diagnoses should focus on the patient's actual or potential health problems, not just medical conditions. Anxiety is a common response to medical procedures like a barium enema. It is essential for the nurse to address the patient's emotional and psychological needs. Summary: B: Impaired gas exchange related to asthma is a medical diagnosis, not a nursing diagnosis. Nursing diagnoses focus on the patient's response to the medical condition. C: Impaired physical mobility related to incisional pain is a potential nursing diagnosis, but the focus should be on the patient's response to the pain, not just the pain itself. D: Nausea related to adverse effect of cancer medication is also a medical diagnosis. Nursing diagnoses should address the patient's response to the medication side effects, not just the side effects themselves.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is conducting a health history interview for a woman at an assisted-living facility. The woman says, “I have been so constipated lately.” How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should respond by asking, “Do you take anything to help your constipation?” This response shows active listening and gathers more information about the woman’s current management of constipation. It allows the nurse to assess the woman's current treatment regimen and potential underlying causes. Choice A is incorrect as it diverts the conversation to chest problems, which is unrelated to the woman's primary concern of constipation. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a potentially harmful solution without assessing the woman's current treatment or determining the cause of her constipation. Choice D is incorrect as it generalizes bowel problems with aging without addressing the woman's specific issue or management.
Question 6 of 9
A client is receiving the cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because thiotepa is a cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent that interferes with both DNA replication and RNA transcription. Thiotepa works by cross-linking DNA strands, leading to inhibition of DNA replication and transcription, ultimately causing cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against actively dividing cells, such as cancer cells. Choice A is incorrect because thiotepa does not interfere with DNA replication alone. Choice B is incorrect because thiotepa affects both DNA replication and RNA transcription, not just RNA transcription. Choice D is incorrect because thiotepa does not destroy the cell membrane; instead, it acts on the genetic material within the cell.
Question 7 of 9
A few hours before the patient was admitted at the hospital, he complained of fever, nausea and vomiting, and vague abdominal pain. The doctor examined the patient as a case of acute appendicitis and prepared for appendectomy. The nurse anticipates that this type of surgery is classified as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: emergency. Acute appendicitis is a condition that requires immediate surgical intervention to prevent complications like rupture. In an emergency surgery, the procedure must be done urgently to treat a life-threatening condition. In this case, the patient's symptoms indicate an urgent need for surgery to remove the inflamed appendix. Choice B: urgent, implies that surgery is needed promptly, but not immediately to prevent life-threatening complications. Choice C: elective, refers to a planned, non-urgent surgery that is scheduled in advance. Choice D: required, is a vague term and doesn't specify the urgency of the surgery, hence it is not the best classification for acute appendicitis surgery.
Question 8 of 9
A complete blood count is commonly performed before a client goes into surgery. What does this test seek to identify?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): A complete blood count (CBC) is used to identify abnormalities in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels are part of a CBC and indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Abnormally low HCT and Hb levels can signify conditions like anemia, which can impact a client's ability to undergo surgery due to potential complications related to oxygen delivery. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Potential hepatic dysfunction is not directly related to a CBC, and BUN/creatinine levels are markers for kidney function, not liver function. B: Low levels of urine constituents are not assessed in a CBC, which focuses on blood components. D: Electrolyte imbalance is not specifically tested in a CBC; it is usually evaluated through separate blood tests. Coagulation factors are not directly measured in a CBC.
Question 9 of 9
A client is in isolation after receiving an internal radioactive implant to treat cancer. Two hours later, the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. First, the nurse should put the implant back in place using forceps and a shield for self-protection. This is important to limit the exposure to radiation for both the client and the nurse. Second, the nurse should call for help to ensure proper handling and further assistance. Standing away from the implant (choice A) does not address the immediate need to secure the implant. Picking up the implant with long-handled forceps and placing it in a lead-lined container (choice B) should only be done by trained personnel to prevent further exposure. Leaving the room and notifying the radiation therapy department immediately (choice C) delays the immediate action needed to prevent unnecessary radiation exposure.