ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is receiving the cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because thiotepa is a cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent that interferes with both DNA replication and RNA transcription. Thiotepa works by cross-linking DNA strands, leading to inhibition of DNA replication and transcription, ultimately causing cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against actively dividing cells, such as cancer cells. Choice A is incorrect because thiotepa does not interfere with DNA replication alone. Choice B is incorrect because thiotepa affects both DNA replication and RNA transcription, not just RNA transcription. Choice D is incorrect because thiotepa does not destroy the cell membrane; instead, it acts on the genetic material within the cell.
Question 2 of 9
The activation of B cells in humoral immunity is assisted by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helper T cells. Helper T cells play a crucial role in activating B cells by releasing cytokines that stimulate B cell proliferation and differentiation. They also help in the production of antibodies. Cytotoxic T cells (A) are involved in cell-mediated immunity, not humoral immunity. Suppressor T cells (B) regulate the immune response and do not directly assist in B cell activation. Neutrophils (D) are phagocytic cells involved in innate immunity, not in activating B cells in humoral immunity.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following lab value profiles should the nurse know to be consistent with hemolytic anemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A): 1. Increased RBC: Hemolytic anemia leads to increased RBC production as the body compensates for the destruction of red blood cells. 2. Decreased bilirubin: Bilirubin levels decrease due to the accelerated breakdown of red blood cells. 3. Decreased Hgb and Hct: Hemolysis causes a decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels as red blood cells are destroyed. 4. Increased reticulocytes: Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells released by the bone marrow in response to increased RBC destruction. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to increased, not decreased, bilirubin levels. - Choice C is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to decreased, not increased, Hgb and Hct levels. - Choice D is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would not lead to increased levels of all parameters
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the first phase of the nursing process is assessment, where the nurse gathers comprehensive data about the patient's health status. This step is crucial in identifying problems and setting priorities for care. Choice B comes in the second phase (diagnosis), C in the third phase (planning), and D in the last phase (evaluation). Assessing the patient's condition is the foundation for the rest of the nursing process.
Question 5 of 9
The nursing staff has a team conference on AIDS and discusses the routes of transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HSV). The discussion reveals that an individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when that individual;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Having intercourse with just the spouse means a monogamous relationship with a trusted partner, minimizing risk of exposure to HIV. 2. It eliminates the risk of contracting HIV from multiple sexual partners. 3. This choice adheres to safer sex practices by reducing the chances of exposure to HIV. 4. This choice also promotes trust and communication within the relationship, further reducing the risk of HIV transmission. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it promotes monogamy and reduces the risk of exposure to HIV. - Choices B, C, and D do not guarantee zero risk of HIV transmission as blood donations, HIV antibodies, and condom use can still pose risks if not used or implemented correctly.
Question 6 of 9
A complete blood count is commonly performed before a client goes into surgery. What does this test seek to identify?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): A complete blood count (CBC) is used to identify abnormalities in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels are part of a CBC and indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Abnormally low HCT and Hb levels can signify conditions like anemia, which can impact a client's ability to undergo surgery due to potential complications related to oxygen delivery. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Potential hepatic dysfunction is not directly related to a CBC, and BUN/creatinine levels are markers for kidney function, not liver function. B: Low levels of urine constituents are not assessed in a CBC, which focuses on blood components. D: Electrolyte imbalance is not specifically tested in a CBC; it is usually evaluated through separate blood tests. Coagulation factors are not directly measured in a CBC.
Question 7 of 9
Which type of neuron transmits impulses from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Efferent neurons transmit impulses from the central nervous system to muscles and glands. This is because efferent neurons are responsible for carrying motor signals away from the central nervous system to control muscle movement and gland secretion. Afferent neurons (choice A) transmit sensory information from the body to the central nervous system. Affective (choice B) is not a term used in neuroscience for describing neuron functions. Effective (choice D) is not a term used in neuroscience and does not describe the specific function of transmitting impulses from the central nervous system to muscles and glands.
Question 8 of 9
The lowest fasting plasma glucose level suggestive of a diagnosis of diabetes is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (126mg/dl) because a fasting plasma glucose level ≥126mg/dl is diagnostic of diabetes. The diagnostic criteria for diabetes include a fasting plasma glucose level ≥126mg/dl on two separate occasions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. A (90mg/dl) is within the normal range, C (115mg/dl) is elevated but not diagnostic, and D (180mg/dl) is too high but not necessary for diagnosis. It's crucial to understand the specific diagnostic criteria to accurately identify diabetes.
Question 9 of 9
A client has cancer that has me tastasized to her bones. She is complaining of increased thirst, polyuria and decreased muscle tone. Her lab values are: Na 139mEq/L, k 4 mEq/L, Cl 103 mEq/L, and Ca 8 mg/dl. What electrolyte imbalance is present?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypercalcemia. Increased thirst and polyuria are symptoms of hypercalcemia, as excess calcium can lead to dehydration and increased urine output. Decreased muscle tone is also a common symptom of hypercalcemia. The lab value of Ca 8 mg/dl confirms high levels of calcium in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Hypocalcemia - This is incorrect as the lab value of Ca 8 mg/dl indicates normal to high levels of calcium, ruling out hypocalcemia. B: Hyperkalemia - This is incorrect as the lab value of K 4 mEq/L is within normal range, ruling out hyperkalemia. D: Hypochloremia - This is incorrect as the lab value of Cl 103 mEq/L is within normal range, ruling out hypochloremia.