ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive.
Question 2 of 5
When teaching the family of a child with Cystic Fibrosis about a new prescription for Acetylcysteine, which information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs.' Acetylcysteine contains sulfur, which gives it a characteristic rotten-egg odor. This odor is normal and expected when using this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Acetylcysteine is not used to suppress cough, cause euphoria, or change urine color.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who asks about using Propranolol to treat hypertension. The provider should recognize which of the following conditions is a contraindication for taking propranolol?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker that blocks both beta1 and beta2 receptors. Blockade of beta2 receptors in the lungs causes bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated in clients with asthma. Using propranolol in asthma can exacerbate bronchoconstriction and potentially lead to respiratory distress or exacerbation of asthma symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
An older adult client has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. The nurse should recognize that concurrent use of which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to toxicity. When given together, the digoxin dosage may need adjustment, and the nurse should closely monitor the client's digoxin levels to prevent toxicity symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and arrhythmias.
Question 5 of 5
A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Metoprolol. When a client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable angina develops reflex tachycardia, the nurse would administer Metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, thereby reducing heart rate and blood pressure. By administering Metoprolol, the nurse can counteract the reflex tachycardia caused by Isosorbide Mononitrate, leading to a more balanced cardiovascular response. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) Furosemide: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions like heart failure and edema by promoting diuresis. It does not address reflex tachycardia. B) Captopril: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor often used in hypertension and heart failure. While it may be beneficial in some cardiovascular conditions, it does not directly address reflex tachycardia. C) Ranolazine: Ranolazine is used in chronic angina to reduce the frequency of episodes. It does not specifically target reflex tachycardia. Educational context: Understanding the pharmacological management of cardiovascular conditions is crucial for nurses to provide safe and effective care. Knowing the actions of different drug classes and their specific indications helps in making informed decisions like choosing the appropriate medication to address specific side effects or complications, as seen in this case of reflex tachycardia with Isosorbide Mononitrate.