ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12g/m2 IV to treat osteogenic carcinoma. During methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to receive which other drug to protect normal cells?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Leucovorin. Leucovorin is administered with methotrexate to protect normal cells from methotrexate toxicity by acting as a "rescue" agent. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, leading to decreased levels of tetrahydrofolate needed for DNA synthesis. Leucovorin bypasses this step by directly providing the reduced form of folic acid, thus preventing toxicity in normal cells. Probenecid (choice A) is not used to protect normal cells during methotrexate therapy. Cytarabine (choice B) and Thioguanine (choice C) are not rescue agents for methotrexate toxicity.
Question 2 of 9
Which iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage an anemic client requiring iron therapy to eat?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Lamb and peaches) because lamb is a good source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Peaches are high in vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption. Shrimp and tomatoes (A) have some iron but are not as rich in iron as lamb. Cheese and bananas (B) are not significant sources of iron. Lobster and squash (C) also do not provide as much iron as lamb. Overall, the combination of heme iron from lamb and vitamin C from peaches makes them the most suitable choices for an anemic client requiring iron therapy.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is starting with a broad assessment of the surgical dressing, which is a general observation, before moving on to more specific details. This approach allows the nurse to gather comprehensive information systematically. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns involves assessing a patient's health across several categories, not specifically related to wound care. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's physical activity and exercise routines, not the wound dressing. D: Problem-oriented assessment involves identifying and addressing specific health issues, rather than starting with a general observation like the appearance of a surgical dressing.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is a nurse patient care role in the preoperative phase?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offering emotional support. In the preoperative phase, a nurse's role includes comforting and reassuring the patient to reduce anxiety and promote emotional well-being. This is crucial for the patient's overall experience and can positively impact their recovery. Obtaining preoperative orders (A) is typically the responsibility of the physician. Explaining the surgical procedure (C) is usually done by the surgeon. Providing informed consent (D) involves ensuring the patient understands the risks and benefits of the procedure, which is typically the responsibility of the healthcare provider performing the procedure.
Question 5 of 9
Mr. Umali, 52-year-old male is being evaluated for acute ulcerative colitis. im preparing Mr. Umali for a barium enema, the nurse can expect that he will be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because cathartics can exacerbate ulcerative colitis symptoms by increasing bowel motility and causing further inflammation. Giving an oil retention enema (choice B) is not necessary for a barium enema. Ingesting radiopaque tablets (choice C) is not typically part of the preparation for a barium enema. Positioning the patient in a high Fowler's position (choice D) is not a specific requirement following the procedure. Overall, avoiding cathartics is crucial in patients with acute ulcerative colitis to prevent worsening of symptoms during the barium enema.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is admitted with a 2-month history of fatigue, SOB, pallor, and dizziness. The patient is diagnosed with idiopathic autoimmune haemolytic anemia. On reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse notes which of the following that confirms this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: RBC fragments. In idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the immune system attacks and destroys red blood cells, leading to hemolysis. The presence of RBC fragments in the blood smear confirms this diagnosis as it indicates mechanical damage to RBCs. Explanation: 1. RBC fragments (schistocytes) are a hallmark of hemolysis, seen in conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 2. Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs (Choice B) are typically seen in iron deficiency anemia, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 3. Macrocytic, normochromic RBCs (Choice C) are characteristic of megaloblastic anemias like vitamin B12 deficiency, not autoimmune hemolytic anemia. 4. Hemoglobin molecules (Choice D) are not directly indicative of autoimmune hemolytic anemia; the presence of free hemoglobin in the blood would suggest intrav
Question 7 of 9
A hospitalized client has the following blood lab values: WBC 3,000/ul, RBC 5.0 (X 106), platelets 300, 000, what would be a priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing infection. With a low WBC count of 3,000/ul, the client is at high risk for infection due to compromised immune function. Priority is to prevent infection by implementing strict infection control measures, such as hand hygiene, sterile techniques, and isolation precautions. Alleviating pain (B) would be important but not the priority in this case. Controlling infection (C) is similar to preventing infection and would be a secondary intervention. Monitoring blood transfusion reactions (D) is not relevant to the client's current lab values.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse performs an assessment of a client in a long-term care facility and records baseline data. The nurse reassesses the client a month later and makes revisions in the plan of care. What type of assessment is the second assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Time-lapsed assessment. This type of assessment involves comparing baseline data with new data collected at a later time to evaluate changes in the client's condition. In this scenario, the nurse is reassessing the client a month later to determine if there have been any changes that require adjustments to the care plan. A: Comprehensive assessment is an in-depth assessment done initially to gather detailed information about the client's overall health status. B: Focused assessment is done to gather specific information related to a particular problem or issue. D: Emergency assessment is performed in urgent situations to quickly identify and address life-threatening conditions.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff. positions is best for a chest drainage system when the patient is being transported by wheelchair?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hanging the chest drainage system on the top of the wheelchair backrest ensures that the system remains upright and secured during transportation, reducing the risk of accidental disconnection or leakage. Placing it on the patient's feet (B), hanging it with the IV pole (C), or placing it in the patient's lap (D) can lead to potential complications such as pulling or kinking the drainage tubing, increasing the risk of infection or injury to the patient.