ATI RN
NCLEX Questions on Oxygen Therapy Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is receiving albuterol for an asthma exacerbation. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist bronchodilator that can stimulate beta-2 receptors in the heart, leading to tachycardia as a common side effect. This occurs due to the drug's sympathomimetic effects on the heart, increasing heart rate. Bradycardia (A) is not a typical side effect of albuterol. Hypoglycemia (B) is not a direct side effect of albuterol use. Hypotension (D) is less common with albuterol and is more associated with beta-1 receptor effects.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with emphysema. Which finding is most consistent with this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Barrel-shaped chest. In emphysema, air becomes trapped in the lungs, causing overinflation and the chest to take on a barrel shape. This is due to the destruction of alveoli and loss of elastic recoil in the lungs. Frequent nighttime cough (A) may occur but is not specific to emphysema. Cyanosis (C) is more indicative of inadequate oxygenation, which may occur in emphysema but is not specific. Peripheral edema (D) is not typically associated with emphysema.
Question 3 of 5
A client with pulmonary edema is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid volume in the body, which leads to decreased edema. Peripheral edema is a common manifestation of pulmonary edema, so a decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Increased respiratory rate (B) is a sign of respiratory distress, not medication effectiveness. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg (C) is within normal range and not a specific indicator of furosemide effectiveness. Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours (D) is a sign of fluid retention and not a desirable outcome when treating pulmonary edema.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with pleural effusion. Which finding is most expected?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dullness to percussion over the affected area. Pleural effusion is an accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, causing dullness to percussion due to the fluid-filled space. Bilateral crackles (A) would suggest a different condition like pulmonary edema. Hyperresonance (C) would be indicative of pneumothorax. Increased fremitus (D) would typically be found in conditions with lung consolidation, such as pneumonia, not pleural effusion. Therefore, the most expected finding in pleural effusion is dullness to percussion over the affected area due to the presence of fluid.
Question 5 of 5
A client with COPD is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rinse your mouth after each use to prevent thrush. Corticosteroid inhalers can increase the risk of oral thrush due to their effect on the immune system. Rinsing the mouth after each use helps to prevent this side effect. A: Using the inhaler only during flare-ups is incorrect as corticosteroid inhalers are often prescribed for daily maintenance to control COPD symptoms. C: Using the inhaler before taking a bronchodilator is not necessary as the order of inhaler use does not impact their effectiveness. D: Taking the medication with meals to prevent stomach upset is incorrect as corticosteroid inhalers are inhaled and do not typically cause stomach upset.