A client is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Questions 97

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Pharmacology Exam Practice Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Increased energy levels are a key indicator of the effectiveness of levothyroxine in treating hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine works to regulate thyroid hormone levels, which can lead to improved energy levels as the body's metabolism is restored. While the other options may also improve with treatment, increased energy levels directly reflect the correction of the thyroid hormone imbalance. Decreased heart rate can be an indicator of overmedication, weight loss can be attributed to increased metabolism but may not directly reflect the effectiveness of levothyroxine, and improved mental clarity is a more general cognitive improvement that may not directly relate to thyroid function.

Question 2 of 9

Which drug is the antidote for Alprazolam?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Alprazolam. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that works by competitively inhibiting the actions of benzodiazepines at the receptor site, effectively reversing their sedative and other effects. Physostigmine is not used as an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose and can have significant side effects. Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not benzodiazepines like Alprazolam. Acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose, not benzodiazepines like Alprazolam.

Question 3 of 9

Which medication is used as a bronchodilator?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Albuterol is the correct answer. It is a medication commonly used as a bronchodilator to treat conditions such as asthma. Albuterol works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, allowing better airflow and making breathing easier for individuals with respiratory conditions. Warfarin (Choice A) is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, Lovastatin (Choice B) is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels, and Valproate (Choice D) is used to treat seizures and bipolar disorder. These medications are not bronchodilators and are used for different medical conditions.

Question 4 of 9

When educating a client with a new prescription for Omeprazole to manage GERD, which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication before meals. Omeprazole should be taken before meals to ensure its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production. This timing allows the medication to work on reducing acid secretion when the stomach is most actively producing it, leading to better control of symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because not all patients with GERD need to take Omeprazole for the rest of their lives; the duration of treatment varies. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase vitamin C intake while taking Omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect because Omeprazole may take a few days to start providing symptom relief, so immediate relief should not be expected.

Question 5 of 9

A client has a new prescription for Metronidazole. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Metronidazole is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol, resulting in severe nausea, vomiting, and other adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to refrain from consuming alcohol during treatment to prevent these potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because Metronidazole can be taken with or without food. Choice C is irrelevant as there is no specific requirement to increase green, leafy vegetable intake with Metronidazole. Choice D is incorrect as a metallic taste is a known side effect of Metronidazole but does not necessarily indicate the need to discontinue the medication.

Question 6 of 9

A patient diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to receive vincristine. Which nursing assessment will have the highest priority when providing care for this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Vincristine is known to cause peripheral neuropathy, a common and potentially debilitating side effect. The nurse should prioritize assessing for signs of neuropathy, such as tingling, numbness, or weakness in the extremities. Alopecia, while distressing, is not as critical as neuropathy, which can affect the patient's mobility and quality of life. Vincristine does not typically cause significant changes in digoxin or phenytoin levels, making these assessments less relevant. Early detection of neuropathy allows for dose adjustments or supportive interventions to minimize long-term damage.

Question 7 of 9

A client is starting a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Clients prescribed verapamil should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice as it can potentiate the drug's effects, leading to adverse reactions. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of verapamil, resulting in higher blood levels of the medication and an increased risk of side effects. Instructions such as taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) are not specific to verapamil and are generally recommended. While monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice C) is important for clients on antihypertensive medications, it is not a direct concern related to verapamil. Monitoring heart rate daily (Choice D) is not a primary consideration when starting verapamil, as it is more commonly used for its effects on blood pressure and arrhythmias rather than heart rate.

Question 8 of 9

A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse notes in the patient™s medication orders that the patient will be taking ibutilide (Corvert). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Ibutilide (Corvert) is a class III antiarrhythmic medication primarily used for the treatment of atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter. It works by prolonging the action potential duration and refractory period of atrial tissue. Therefore, when a nurse notes that a patient will be taking ibutilide, it indicates that the patient likely has atrial fibrillation, a common arrhythmia characterized by rapid, irregular electrical activity in the atria of the heart.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days