ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluoxetine, an SSRI, treats depression but interacts with alcohol, worsening sedation or mood , indicating a teaching gap'clients must avoid it. Feeling better in weeks aligns with SSRI onset. Reporting suicidal thoughts is critical due to early risk. Morning dosing prevents insomnia. Drinking wine risks treatment failure or safety issues, critical in depression where stability is fragile. Further teaching must clarify this interaction, ensuring fluoxetine's efficacy and client well-being, making B the statement needing correction.
Question 2 of 9
The drug Ondansetron action is?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ondansetron is a medication commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly in patients receiving chemotherapy or undergoing surgery. Its mechanism of action involves blocking the effects of serotonin, specifically by antagonizing serotonin 5-HT3 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the brain and the gastrointestinal tract. By inhibiting serotonin signaling, ondansetron helps to alleviate nausea and vomiting in affected individuals. This action is distinct from the other options provided, making option C the correct answer for the drug Ondansetron.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse plans medication education for a client who receives a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). What will the best plan by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra), a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor for erectile dysfunction, has a recommended dosing limit of one pill per 24 hours to prevent overdose risks like prolonged erections or cardiovascular strain, making this a critical safety instruction. Grapefruit juice actually increases sildenafil levels by inhibiting metabolism, not decreasing effects, which could heighten side effects. Timing is optimal at 1 hour before sex, with effectiveness possible up to 4 hours, not 6, ensuring accurate expectations. Taking it on an empty stomach enhances absorption, as food-especially high-fat meals-delays onset, contrary to the food suggestion. The 24-hour limit is foundational for safe use, balancing efficacy with minimizing adverse effects like headache or hypotension, and aligns with standard prescribing guidelines, making it the priority in client education.
Question 4 of 9
When administering heparin subcutaneously, the nurse will follow which procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When administering heparin subcutaneously, the nurse should use a - to -inch needle. This needle length is appropriate for subcutaneous injections as it ensures the medication is being injected into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Using a longer needle can result in the medication being injected too deeply, potentially causing complications. Additionally, the nurse should not aspirate the syringe before injecting the medication, massage the site after injection, or apply heat to the injection site when administering heparin subcutaneously.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is teaching a caregivers' support group for caretakers of older adult patients. The focus is medication compliance. The nurse determines that learning has occurred when the caregivers make which response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A med management box organizes doses, reducing forgotten pills in older adults with memory issues, boosting compliance. Crushing meds risks altering pharmacokinetics (e.g., enteric-coated drugs). Doctor review is proactive but not direct compliance. More education assumes understanding drives adherence, often untrue. The box addresses forgetfulness, a practical fix.
Question 6 of 9
An adolescent client will receive Depo-Provera as a method of birth control. She asks the nurse how long the drug will be effective. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Depo-Provera lasts 3 months , inhibiting ovulation via progestin. Two months underestimates, six months and one year overestimate. D provides accurate timing, ensuring adherence, making it the best response.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is monitoring for adverse effects in a patient who is receiving an amiodarone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: - Tachycardia (increased heart rate) can be an adverse effect of amiodarone. This medication is used to treat irregular heartbeats, so it's important to monitor for any abnormal heart rhythms, including tachycardia.
Question 8 of 9
A patient undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer asks why she is not receiving trastuzumab like her sister. Which response by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Trastuzumab is a targeted therapy used specifically for HER2-positive breast cancer. If the patient's cancer cells do not overexpress the HER2 receptor, trastuzumab will not be effective. The decision to use targeted therapy is based on the molecular characteristics of the tumor, not the patient's age, insurance coverage, or estrogen receptor status. The nurse should explain that targeted therapies are tailored to the specific biology of the cancer, and trastuzumab is only appropriate for HER2-positive tumors.
Question 9 of 9
What is the antidote for Heparin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for Heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that prevents the formation of blood clots. In case of an overdose of Heparin or if there is a need to reverse its effects quickly (such as during surgery), Protamine is administered as the specific antidote. Protamine works by binding to Heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Therefore, Protamine is the appropriate antidote to counteract the effects of Heparin.