ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant sources of iron, especially heme iron, making them less effective in treating iron deficiency anemia.
Question 3 of 9
The client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 is admitted to the hospital with cellulitis of the right foot secondary to an insect bite. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority intervention in this situation. Cellulitis is a bacterial infection that can spread rapidly, especially in individuals with diabetes. Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial to prevent the infection from worsening and causing serious complications. Applying warm moist packs, elevating the foot, and teaching the client about skin and foot care are important interventions but should come after initiating antibiotic treatment to address the underlying infection.
Question 4 of 9
What type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimize irritation to the digestive tract, allowing the inflamed diverticula to heal. High-fiber foods are usually avoided during flare-ups as they can exacerbate symptoms. Low-fat and high-protein diets are not specifically recommended for diverticulitis flare-ups. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.
Question 5 of 9
The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' Mobilization is the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department. This involves preparing and organizing medical resources and personnel for deployment during military operations. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important aspects in military healthcare, they do not represent the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department as specifically requested in the question.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. Which is the order of basic CPR?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order of basic CPR is to first ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess responsiveness. Next, call for help and start CPR with chest compressions, followed by checking the airway and giving rescue breaths. Choice B is incorrect as giving rescue breaths is usually done after the initial chest compressions. Choice C is incorrect as looking, listening, and feeling for breathing comes after starting compressions. Choice D is incorrect as chest compressions are usually the first step in basic CPR.
Question 7 of 9
Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.
Question 8 of 9
Identifying the strengths and weaknesses in the nursing care plan is part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the patient's nursing care needs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Evaluation involves assessing the effectiveness of the nursing care plan by identifying its strengths and weaknesses. This step helps in determining if the plan is meeting the patient's needs. Choice B (Planning) is incorrect because planning involves developing the nursing care plan based on the assessment of the patient's needs. Choice C (Implementation) is incorrect as it refers to putting the nursing care plan into action. Choice D (Assessment) is incorrect as assessment is the initial step in the nursing process, involving data collection and analysis to identify the patient's needs.
Question 9 of 9
What intervention would be the most important for the nurse to implement for the client with a left nephrectomy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most important intervention for a client with a left nephrectomy is to assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume. After nephrectomy, monitoring intravenous fluids is crucial to ensure proper hydration and kidney function. Changing the surgical dressing daily, monitoring medication levels, and tracking meal intake are also important aspects of care but not as critical as ensuring adequate intravenous fluid management post-surgery.