ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is hospitalized with oat cell carcinoma of the lung. To manage severe pain, the physician prescribes a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine. Which formula should the nurse use to check that the morphine dose is appropriate for the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct formula to calculate the appropriate morphine dose for the client is 5 mg/kg of body weight. This is the most suitable formula because morphine dosing is typically based on weight to ensure appropriate pain management and to prevent adverse effects. By using this formula, the nurse can calculate the exact dose based on the client's weight, providing personalized care. Choice A (1 mg/kg of body weight) is too low of a dose and may not effectively manage severe pain. Choice B (5 mg/70kg of body weight) is not ideal as it does not account for variations in weight among individuals. Choice D (10mg/70kg of body weight) would result in an overdose for most patients, potentially causing serious harm. Therefore, by using the formula of 5 mg/kg of body weight, the nurse can ensure that the morphine dose is appropriate and safe for the client.
Question 2 of 9
Mr. RR is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of brain tumor. Mr. RR’s doctor is very much concerned about the possibility of increased intracranial pressure. The following is the most reliable index of cerebral state:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Level of consciousness is the most reliable index of cerebral state because it directly reflects the functioning of the brain. Changes in consciousness can indicate alterations in cerebral perfusion and potential increases in intracranial pressure. Step 2: Unilateral papillary dilatation may suggest an increase in intracranial pressure, but it is not as reliable as level of consciousness in assessing overall cerebral state. Step 3: Increased systolic blood pressure can occur due to various reasons and may not specifically indicate changes in intracranial pressure. Step 4: Decreased pulse pressure may be related to factors such as hypovolemia or cardiac conditions, but it is not a direct indicator of cerebral state or intracranial pressure.
Question 3 of 9
A client with HIV has been prescribed anti viral medications. What instructions related to administration of medications should the nurse give such a client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Timing: Antiviral medications should be taken as prescribed to maintain consistent drug levels in the body. 2. Around meals: Taking medications with or without food can affect absorption, so timing around meals helps with consistency. 3. Compliance: Following the timing instructions increases medication effectiveness and reduces the risk of drug resistance. Other Choices: B) Avoiding harsh sunlight: Not directly related to medication administration; may be a precaution for other reasons. C) Having medications with fruit juice: This is not a standard instruction for antiviral medications; may not be suitable for all medications. D) Increasing dose for worsening symptoms: This is dangerous and should only be done under healthcare provider supervision; self-adjusting medication doses can be harmful.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse completes a health history and physical assessment on a client who has been admitted to the hospital for surgery. What is the purpose of this initial assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: To establish a database to identify problems and strengths. This initial assessment is crucial for gathering comprehensive information about the client's health status, including past medical history, current health problems, and potential risk factors. By establishing a database, the nurse can identify both existing health issues that need to be addressed and strengths that can be built upon for effective care planning. This assessment serves as the foundation for developing an individualized care plan and monitoring the client's progress throughout their hospital stay. Explanation of other options: A: To gather data about a specific and current health problem - While this may be part of the assessment process, the main purpose is broader in scope to establish a comprehensive database. B: To identify life-threatening problems that require immediate attention - While identifying urgent issues is important, the initial assessment is not solely focused on life-threatening problems. C: To compare and contrast current health status to baseline data - While comparing to baseline data is important for tracking changes, the primary purpose
Question 5 of 9
A female client with lymphedema expresses her anxiety about the abnormal enlargement of an arm. Which of the ff suggestions should a nurse give to support the clients self image?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Introduce variations in styles of clothing. This suggestion promotes the client's self-image by helping her feel more comfortable and confident in her appearance despite the lymphedema. It allows her to express her personal style while accommodating the enlarged arm. A: Placing the arm in a sling does not address the client's self-image concerns and may further highlight the abnormality. B: Applying cold soaks may help with swelling but does not directly address the client's self-image. D: Tying a tight bandage can worsen lymphedema and does not address the client's self-image concerns.
Question 6 of 9
During outcome identification and planning, from what part of the nursing diagnoses are outcomes derived?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During outcome identification and planning, outcomes are derived from the problem statement of the nursing diagnoses. This is because the problem statement clearly defines the patient's health issue or condition that needs to be addressed, thus guiding the development of specific, measurable, and achievable outcomes. The defining characteristics (choice A) describe the signs and symptoms of the health problem but do not directly lead to outcome identification. The related factors (choice B) represent the potential causes or contributing factors to the health problem and are not used to derive outcomes. The database (choice D) consists of the patient's health history, assessment data, and laboratory findings, which are essential for diagnosing but do not directly determine outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it directly informs the outcomes to be achieved.
Question 7 of 9
Hyperparathyroidism is caused by increased levels of thyroxine in blood plasma. A client with this endocrine dysfunction would experience:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hyperparathyroidism is not caused by increased levels of thyroxine but by overactivity of the parathyroid glands. This would lead to symptoms of heat intolerance due to increased metabolism and systolic hypertension due to the effects of excess parathyroid hormone on calcium levels. Choice B is incorrect because diastolic hypertension and widened pulse pressure are not typical symptoms of hyperparathyroidism. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common symptom of hyperparathyroidism. Choice D is incorrect because anorexia and hyper-excitability are not typical symptoms of hyperparathyroidism.
Question 8 of 9
Why must clients who will undergo diagnostic skin test avoid taking antihistamine or cold preparations for at least 48-72 hrs before testing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because antihistamines can suppress the immune response that the skin test is designed to detect, leading to false negative results. By inhibiting the body's allergic response, antihistamines can mask the presence of an allergy, giving the false impression that the individual is not allergic to a particular substance. This can lead to misdiagnosis and improper treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because antihistamines do not affect bleeding, aggravate allergic reactions, or cause wheezing in the context of a skin test.
Question 9 of 9
A patient’s son decides to stay at the bedside while his father is confused. When developing the plan of care for this patient, what should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Involve the son in the plan of care as much as possible. This is important for several reasons. Firstly, involving the son promotes family-centered care, which can improve patient outcomes. Secondly, the son may provide valuable insights into the patient's preferences and needs. Thirdly, it can help reduce the patient's confusion by providing familiar support. Option A is incorrect as it disregards the potential benefits of involving family members. Option B is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's rest without considering the emotional support the son may provide. Option C is incorrect as it assumes the gender of the family member matters more than their relationship to the patient.