A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia spectrum disorder. A physician orders haloperidol (Haldol) 50 mg bid, benztropine (Cogentin) 1 mg prn, and zolpidem (Ambien) 10 mg HS. Which client behavior would warrant the nurse to administer benztropine?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restlessness and muscle rigidity. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle rigidity, which can occur as side effects of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Tactile hallucinations (A) are not typically treated with benztropine. Tardive dyskinesia (B) is a movement disorder that may result from long-term use of antipsychotic medications and is not an acute symptom requiring benztropine. Reports of hearing disturbing voices (D) are symptoms of schizophrenia that are typically managed with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, rather than benztropine.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Lithium is a mood stabilizer that can cause dehydration and increase the risk of toxicity. Step 2: Maintaining normal salt and fluids helps prevent dehydration and maintains lithium levels. Step 3: Drinking excessive fluids (B) can lead to lithium toxicity. Step 4: Regular liver function tests (C) are not necessary for monitoring lithium therapy. Step 5: Avoiding aged cheese (D) is unrelated to lithium therapy. Summary: Choice A is correct as it directly addresses the need to maintain hydration and normal salt levels to prevent lithium toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are either unnecessary or unrelated to lithium therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: It decreases intracranial pressure. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing water from brain tissue into the bloodstream, reducing intracranial pressure. This helps to manage conditions such as cerebral edema. Choices B and C are incorrect because mannitol does not impact intraocular pressure or cause sodium and potassium retention. Choice D is incorrect as mannitol causes diuresis rapidly within minutes to hours, not over several days.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dopamine-blocking effects. Restlessness and an uncontrollable need to be in motion are known side effects of medications that block dopamine receptors in the brain. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in movement control, and blocking its action can lead to motor side effects like restlessness. Anticholinergic effects (choice A) would cause dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation. Endocrine-stimulating effects (choice C) would affect hormone levels, not movement. Ability to stimulate spinal nerves (choice D) would cause muscle contractions or pain, not restlessness.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because women are at higher risk for tardive dyskinesia while taking conventional antipsychotic medications. This fact is crucial for the nurse's assessment because tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect characterized by involuntary movements and can be irreversible. Understanding this risk allows the nurse to closely monitor the patient for symptoms and intervene promptly if needed. Choice B is incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that women experience more severe side effects than men while taking atypical antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as there is no generalization that women are more susceptible to developing a dependence on most psychiatric medications compared to men. Choice D is incorrect because there is no established evidence that women are less susceptible to developing common side effects of antipsychotic medications than men.