A client is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disorder. When teaching the client and family about autoimmune disorders, the nurse should provide which information?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Autoimmune disorders include connective tissue (collagen) disorders. Rationale: Autoimmune disorders involve the immune system mistakenly attacking healthy cells and tissues in the body, which can lead to various conditions, including connective tissue disorders like rheumatoid arthritis. Providing this information to the client and family is crucial for understanding the nature of autoimmune disorders and the potential impact on the body. Summary of other choices: A: False-negative or false-positive serologic tests can occur in autoimmune disorders, so this statement is not specific enough to be the most appropriate information to provide. B: Advanced medical interventions can manage symptoms but not cure autoimmune disorders, making this statement inaccurate and misleading. D: Autoimmune disorders can present with a wide range of symptoms and can be challenging to diagnose, but this statement does not address the specific link between autoimmune disorders and connective tissue disorders.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disruption of tissue integrity. Acute pain is typically caused by tissue damage or injury, such as a cut or a burn. The nurse would use this assessment data as an etiology for acute pain because it directly relates to the source of the pain. Discomfort while changing position (A) is a symptom of pain but does not provide the underlying cause. Reports pain as a 7 on a 0 to 10 scale (B) is a pain intensity rating and does not explain the cause of the pain. Dull headache (D) is a specific type of pain but is not relevant to the given scenario of tissue disruption.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A painless mass in the breast. This is the primary sign of breast cancer because most breast cancers present as painless lumps or masses. This is due to the abnormal growth of cells forming a tumor. Other choices (A, B, C) are also signs of breast cancer, but they are not as common or primary as the presence of a painless mass. A bloody discharge from the nipple (A) can be a sign of a benign condition or cancer, but it is not the most common presentation. Nipple retraction (B) and dimpling of the skin over the lesion (C) can also be signs of breast cancer, but they usually occur in later stages of the disease. Therefore, the presence of a painless mass in the breast is the primary sign that should raise suspicion for breast cancer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia collection kit. The primary care provider will need the collection kit to gather a sample for testing. A Chlamydia slide (A) is not necessary as the provider needs to collect a sample first. A Chlamydia swab (C) is used to collect the sample, not to provide to the provider. A Chlamydia wet mount (D) is not appropriate for Chlamydia testing, as it is typically used for other types of infections.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. Fractures are the primary complication of osteoporosis due to decreased bone density. Increased trabeculae (A) is incorrect as osteoporosis leads to decreased bone density, not increased. Poor posture (B) may be a result of osteoporosis but is not its primary complication. Chronic pain (C) can occur with osteoporosis but is not as directly linked as fractures.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Rationale: During a spinal block, the anesthesiologist injects anesthesia into the subarachnoid space, which contains CSF. Proper positioning ensures that the anesthesia stays in place and prevents leakage of CSF, which could lead to complications such as post-dural puncture headache. Incorrect choices: A: To prevent confusion - Irrelevant to the procedure. C: To prevent seizures leakage - Seizures are not a concern with spinal blocks. D: To prevent cardiac arrhythmias - Cardiac arrhythmias are not directly related to spinal blocks.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because postural hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg or a drop in diastolic blood pressure of greater than 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing from a sitting or supine position. Therefore, a drop in systolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg when changing from lying to sitting is indicative of postural hypotension. Choice B is incorrect as postural hypotension is primarily defined by changes in systolic blood pressure, not diastolic. Choice C is incorrect because a drop in diastolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg is not the defining characteristic of postural hypotension. Choice D is not provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because hanging the chest drainage system on the top of the wheelchair backrest ensures that the system remains upright and secured during transportation, reducing the risk of accidental disconnection or leakage. Placing it on the patient's feet (B), hanging it with the IV pole (C), or placing it in the patient's lap (D) can lead to potential complications such as pulling or kinking the drainage tubing, increasing the risk of infection or injury to the patient.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IV drugs and chemicals. Thrombophlebitis is inflammation of a vein with blood clot formation, commonly caused by irritants like IV drugs. Impaired mobility (C) and compromised circulation (D) are risk factors for thrombophlebitis, but not specific to older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases. A is incorrect as not all choices apply in this scenario.