ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The physician prescribes mitomycin (Mutamycin) with other chemotherapeutic agents for palliative treatment. How mitomycin does exert its cytotoxic effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Mitomycin works by cross-linking DNA, leading to inhibition of DNA synthesis and ultimately causing cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against rapidly dividing cancer cells. B: It’s cell cycle-phase specific - This is incorrect because mitomycin is not specific to a particular phase of the cell cycle. C: It inhibits ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis - This is incorrect as mitomycin primarily targets DNA synthesis, not RNA synthesis. D: It inhibits protein synthesis - This is incorrect as mitomycin's main mechanism of action is through DNA cross-linking, not protein synthesis inhibition.
Question 2 of 9
Nurse Lina gives discharge instructions to Aling Maria, who is experiencing an exacerbation of COPD because of an upper respiratory tract infection, regarding her diet at home. Which of the following food choices would be appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: high calorie high protein. In COPD exacerbation, the body requires extra calories and protein for energy and muscle strength. High-calorie foods help combat weight loss and fatigue. High-protein foods aid in muscle repair and maintenance. Low-fat low-cholesterol (A) is not ideal as healthy fats are needed. Low-sodium (B) is not necessary unless there is concurrent heart failure. Bland soft diet (C) is not suitable as it does not provide enough calories and protein needed for COPD exacerbation.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is providing nursing care to patients after completing a care plan from nursing diagnoses. In which step of the nursing process is the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. In this step of the nursing process, the nurse is carrying out the care plan based on the identified nursing diagnoses. The nurse is actively providing care and interventions to meet the patient's needs. Assessment (A) is the initial step where data is collected and analyzed. Planning (B) is where goals and interventions are determined based on assessment findings. Evaluation (D) is the final step where the nurse assesses the effectiveness of the care provided. In this scenario, the nurse has already completed the care plan and is now executing the plan by implementing the interventions, making choice C the correct answer.
Question 4 of 9
A client becomes upset when the physician diagnoses diabetes mellitus as the cause of current signs and symptoms. The client tells the nurse, “This must be a mistake. No one in my family has ever had diabetes.” Based on this statement, the nurse suspects the client is using which coping mechanism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Denial. The client's refusal to accept the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, stating that no one in their family has had it, indicates denial as a coping mechanism. Denial is a defense mechanism where individuals refuse to acknowledge unpleasant realities. In this case, the client is rejecting the diagnosis to avoid facing the reality of having a chronic condition. The other choices (B: Anger, C: Withdrawal, D: Resolution) do not fit the client's response in this scenario. Anger involves expressing frustration or hostility, withdrawal is avoiding the situation, and resolution is accepting and dealing with the issue.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff vessels is often used for grafting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the internal mammary and internal thoracic arteries in the chest are commonly used for grafting due to their size, durability, and long-term patency. These arteries have a better track record for successful grafting procedures compared to the other options. The basic and cephalic veins in the arm (Option A) are typically used for venous procedures, not arterial grafting. The saphenous vein in the leg (Option C) is also commonly used for grafting, but the internal mammary and internal thoracic arteries are preferred for their better outcomes. The radial artery in the arm (Option D) is less commonly used for grafting compared to the internal mammary and internal thoracic arteries.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 32-year old client admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set of findings should the nurse expect when assessing the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue. Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, leading to symptoms such as pallor (due to decreased red blood cells), tachycardia (as the heart works harder to compensate for decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood), and a sore tongue (due to inflammation of the tongue). Choice A is incorrect because bradycardia would not be expected in pernicious anemia, and reduced pulse is not a typical finding. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is not a common symptom of pernicious anemia. Choice C is incorrect because angina and double vision are not typical findings of pernicious anemia, and anorexia is more likely due to other causes.
Question 7 of 9
Mr. Mariano was on his way home from a party. Apparently, he got drunk and lost his balance and suffered a vehicular accident. Upon arrival at the hospital, the nurse noticed that his only injury is an open fracture of the left humerus. Which assessment finding by the nurse is critical?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: status of client’s tetanus immunization. It is critical because an open fracture poses a risk of infection, and tetanus prophylaxis is necessary to prevent tetanus infection. Tetanus is caused by a bacterium commonly found in soil and can enter the body through open wounds. Assessing the client's tetanus immunization status helps determine the need for a tetanus booster to prevent potential complications. Incorrect choices: B: Current blood alcohol level - While relevant to the situation, the priority in this case is preventing infection from the open fracture. C: Support systems available at home to assist with care - Important for discharge planning but not the immediate priority. D: Last time client voided - Not critical in this scenario compared to preventing infection from the open fracture.
Question 8 of 9
for pain management. When applying a new system, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Pressing the system in place for 30 to 60 seconds helps ensure proper adhesion and absorption of the medication. This step is crucial for the effectiveness of the pain management system. B: Choosing a site on the lower torso is not necessary for applying the system. The site selection should be based on guidelines and patient preference. C: Shaving the application site is not recommended unless specifically indicated. It is not a standard step for applying a pain management system. D: Applying the system immediately after removal from a package may not allow the adhesive to fully activate, affecting its efficacy. It is important to follow the recommended steps for proper application.
Question 9 of 9
Which finding will alert the nurse that the goal has been met?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it meets the goal of maintaining a heart rate of 78 beats/min. This specific date ensures the consistency of the heart rate within the desired range. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the goal as they either have a different heart rate or occur on a different date. Therefore, A is the only option that accurately reflects the goal being met on the specified date.