ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The physician prescribes mitomycin (Mutamycin) with other chemotherapeutic agents for palliative treatment. How mitomycin does exert its cytotoxic effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Mitomycin is an alkylating agent that works by cross-linking DNA, preventing DNA synthesis and leading to cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against rapidly dividing cells like cancer cells. Choice B, inhibiting ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, is incorrect as mitomycin primarily targets DNA synthesis. Choice C, being cell cycle-phase specific, is incorrect as mitomycin affects cells in all phases of the cell cycle. Choice D, inhibiting protein synthesis, is incorrect because mitomycin's primary mode of action is on DNA replication, not protein synthesis.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following guidekines does not observe surgical asepisi in the operating room?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in surgical asepsis, sterile articles should not touch other sterile articles or surfaces to maintain sterility. Choice B is correct as surgical team gowns are sterile in front. Choice C is correct as any breach makes the area contaminated. Choice D is correct as sterile drapes create a sterile field.
Question 3 of 9
Which antiparkinsonian drug is associated with the on-off phenomenon and the wearing-off effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Levodopa. Levodopa is associated with the on-off phenomenon and wearing-off effect in Parkinson's disease treatment due to fluctuations in its effectiveness over time. The on-off phenomenon refers to sudden and unpredictable changes in motor function, while wearing-off effect occurs when the medication's effects diminish before the next dose. Amantadine (A) is not typically associated with these phenomena. Benztropine (C) is an anticholinergic used for tremors and rigidity. Pramixole (D) is a dopamine agonist that can cause dyskinesias but is not primarily linked to on-off or wearing-off effects.
Question 4 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is about to begin aspirin therapy to reduce inflammation. When teaching the client about aspirin, the nurse discusses adverse reactions to prolonged aspirin therapy. These include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory acidosis. Aspirin can lead to respiratory acidosis due to its effect on the respiratory center in the brainstem. It causes hyperventilation, leading to respiratory alkalosis initially, followed by respiratory acidosis as compensation mechanism fails. Weight gain is not a typical adverse reaction of aspirin. Fine motor tremors are not associated with aspirin therapy. Bilateral hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect of aspirin overdose, not prolonged therapy.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination on the same day each month to establish a routine, making it easier to remember and detect any changes. This consistency helps in early detection of abnormalities. Incorrect Choices: A: Doing it at the end of the menstrual cycle may not be consistent due to varying cycle lengths. B: Doing it on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle may not be practical and could lead to missing potential abnormalities. D: Doing it immediately after her menstrual period may not provide a consistent schedule for self-examination.
Question 6 of 9
What part of the nursing diagnosis statement suggests the nursing interventions to be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Etiology of the problem. In a nursing diagnosis statement, the etiology describes the underlying cause or contributing factors to the identified problem. This is crucial as it guides the selection of appropriate nursing interventions aimed at addressing the root cause of the issue. By addressing the etiology, nurses can implement interventions that will effectively treat the problem. Choice A (Problem statement) simply identifies the issue without providing insight into its cause. Choice B (Defining characteristics) lists the signs and symptoms of the problem but doesn't directly inform the interventions needed. Choice D (Outcomes criteria) outlines the expected results of the interventions but doesn't directly suggest which interventions to implement. Thus, C is the correct choice as it directly influences the selection of appropriate nursing interventions.
Question 7 of 9
Which scenario best illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient? The nurse determines to remove a wound dressing when the patient reveals the time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the nurse is using data validation by comparing the time of the last dressing change with the appearance of old and new drainage. This process ensures that the decision to remove the wound dressing is based on accurate and relevant information. By assessing both the time of the last dressing change and the characteristics of the drainage, the nurse is validating the need for the intervention. Option B is incorrect because administering pain medicine based solely on a patient's report of increased pain without further validation does not demonstrate data validation. Option C is incorrect as the nurse immediately requesting an order of potassium without further assessment of the patient's condition is not an example of data validation. Option D is incorrect as elevating a leg cast based solely on a patient's report of decreased mobility without further assessment does not involve data validation.
Question 8 of 9
A 39-year old male client underwent Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP) eight hours ago and asks the nurse, “Why is my urine in the bag clotting like blood?” The nurse’s best interpretation of this finding is that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: after the surgery, bleeding is normal. This is because after a TURP procedure, it is common for some bleeding to occur, leading to blood clots in the urine bag. The surgical site undergoes trauma, causing bleeding as a part of the healing process. Choice B is incorrect because while irrigation may be done post-surgery, blood clots in the urine bag are expected due to the surgery itself, not just irrigation. Choice C is incorrect as it is normal for some bleeding to occur after TURP, and immediate physician intervention is not necessary unless excessive bleeding is observed. Choice D is incorrect as tugging on the catheter may cause bleeding, but in this case, the presence of blood clots is likely due to the surgery itself, not catheter irritation.
Question 9 of 9
When caring for an anxious patient with dyspnea, which of the ff. nursing actions is most helpful to include in the plan of care to relieve anxiety?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staying at patient's bedside. This is the most helpful nursing action because it provides reassurance and support to the anxious patient experiencing dyspnea. By staying at the bedside, the nurse can monitor the patient closely, provide immediate assistance if needed, and offer a calming presence. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Increasing activity levels may worsen the dyspnea and anxiety of the patient. B: Pulling the privacy curtain does not directly address the patient's anxiety or dyspnea. D: Closing the patient's door may make the patient feel isolated and increase anxiety. In summary, staying at the patient's bedside is the most effective nursing action as it addresses both the physical and emotional needs of the anxious patient with dyspnea.