ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if their previous delivery was via spontaneous vertex delivery. This indicates that the client has successfully given birth vaginally before, reducing the risk associated with a vaginal birth after cesarean section. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Cephalopelvic disproportion was the reason for the previous C/S, indicating potential difficulty in vaginal delivery. B: Confirmation of a multiple pregnancy does not impact the client's eligibility for a vaginal birth after cesarean section. C: Previous cesarean section does not necessarily mean the client is fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section.
Question 2 of 9
Deep transverse arrest is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep transverse arrest occurs when the level of the occiput and the sinciput is the same, leading to a failure of descent of the fetal head through the pelvis. This alignment issue hinders the progress of labor despite adequate contractions. A: Incorrect. Flexion being well maintained is not a defining characteristic of deep transverse arrest. B: Incorrect. While strong uterine contractions can contribute to labor challenges, deep transverse arrest is specifically related to the alignment of the fetal head. C: Incorrect. The curvature of the sacrum is not directly related to deep transverse arrest.
Question 3 of 9
Prior to taking a patient for an emergency cesarean section, it is MOST important to assess that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because establishing an intravenous line is essential for immediate access to administer fluids, medications, and blood products during the emergency cesarean section. This step ensures that the patient's vital signs can be supported, and any emergent interventions can be readily delivered. A: While informed consent is important, in an emergency situation, the priority is to ensure the patient's immediate medical needs are met. B: Inserting a Foley's catheter may be necessary during the procedure, but it is not the most critical assessment prior to the cesarean section. D: Shaving the perineal area is not a priority in an emergency situation and may be done during the preparation for surgery.
Question 4 of 9
When examining a patient with abdominal pain, the AGACNP knows that tenderness to percussion is analogous to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tympany. Tenderness to percussion is analogous to tympany as both indicate the presence of gas-filled structures. When a patient experiences tenderness to percussion in the abdomen, it suggests that there is gas or air present in the abdomen, leading to a hollow, drum-like sound upon percussion, which is characteristic of tympany. Guarding (B) is the involuntary contraction of abdominal muscles to protect the underlying organs, not related to percussion. Rebound tenderness (C) is the pain experienced when pressure is released during palpation, not percussion. Somatic pain (D) refers to pain originating from the skin, muscles, or bones, not related to percussion findings.
Question 5 of 9
Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions highly associated with:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rhesus D incompatibility. Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by Rhesus D incompatibility between the mother and fetus. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, leading to the production of antibodies by the mother that attack the baby's red blood cells. This can result in severe jaundice (icterus gravis) and excessive fluid accumulation in the fetus (hydrops fetalis). Summary: - Choice B (ABO incompatibility) is incorrect because it typically causes less severe jaundice and anemia compared to Rhesus D incompatibility. - Choice C (Physiological jaundice) is incorrect as it is a common benign condition in newborns due to immature liver function. - Choice D (Instant perinatal death) is incorrect as it does not specifically relate to the conditions mentioned.
Question 6 of 9
A client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if their previous delivery was via spontaneous vertex delivery. This indicates that the client has successfully given birth vaginally before, reducing the risk associated with a vaginal birth after cesarean section. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Cephalopelvic disproportion was the reason for the previous C/S, indicating potential difficulty in vaginal delivery. B: Confirmation of a multiple pregnancy does not impact the client's eligibility for a vaginal birth after cesarean section. C: Previous cesarean section does not necessarily mean the client is fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section.
Question 7 of 9
Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are most commonly caused by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rotational injury. Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are often caused by rotational forces that occur during accidents such as motor vehicle collisions or falls. These forces lead to the spine being twisted, causing separation of the vertebrae. Blunt trauma (A) can cause various spinal injuries but is not specific to flexion-distraction injuries. Seat belts (C) are designed to prevent spinal injuries by restraining the body during a collision. Gunshot wounds (D) can cause spinal cord injuries but are not commonly associated with flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine.
Question 8 of 9
The recommended number of chest compressions for neonatal resuscitation is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 60 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute. In neonatal resuscitation, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is 3:1. This means 3 compressions are given followed by 1 breath. With a target compression rate of 120 per minute, this translates to 60 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute. Each compression should be at a depth of about one-third the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. This ratio and rate are crucial for maintaining adequate circulation and oxygenation during neonatal resuscitation. Choice B: 3 compressions coordinated with 1 breath per minute is too slow and would not provide enough support for the neonate's circulation. Choice C: 1 compression coordinated with 3 breaths per minute would not provide sufficient compressions to maintain circulation. Choice D: 90 compressions coordinated with 30 breaths per minute would result in an incorrect compression-to-vent
Question 9 of 9
The factor indicative of an abnormal labour pattern on vaginal examination is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: In normal labor, the cervix undergoes effacement and dilation. Step 2: A short and thin cervical canal indicates progression towards labor. Step 3: Long and thick cervical canal suggests a delay in labor progress. Step 4: Choice C, short and thin cervical canal, is indicative of abnormal labor. Summary: A, B, and D do not reflect changes in the cervix seen in labor, making them incorrect choices.