ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if their previous delivery was via spontaneous vertex delivery. This indicates that the client has successfully given birth vaginally before, reducing the risk associated with a vaginal birth after cesarean section. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Cephalopelvic disproportion was the reason for the previous C/S, indicating potential difficulty in vaginal delivery. B: Confirmation of a multiple pregnancy does not impact the client's eligibility for a vaginal birth after cesarean section. C: Previous cesarean section does not necessarily mean the client is fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section.
Question 2 of 5
Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 causes one of the following
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neonatal injury to nerve roots C8 & T1 leads to Klumpke's palsy due to damage to the lower brachial plexus. This results in weakness of the hand and forearm muscles. Erb's palsy is from injury to C5-C6 roots causing upper brachial plexus damage. Phrenic injury affects the diaphragm due to C3-C5 roots. Radial palsy involves the radial nerve, typically from injury at the spiral groove of the humerus. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly correlates with the specific nerve roots affected in Klumpke's palsy.
Question 3 of 5
Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions highly associated with:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rhesus D incompatibility. Icterus gravis and hydrops fetalis are conditions associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by Rhesus D incompatibility between the mother and fetus. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, leading to the production of antibodies by the mother that attack the baby's red blood cells. This can result in severe jaundice (icterus gravis) and excessive fluid accumulation in the fetus (hydrops fetalis). Summary: - Choice B (ABO incompatibility) is incorrect because it typically causes less severe jaundice and anemia compared to Rhesus D incompatibility. - Choice C (Physiological jaundice) is incorrect as it is a common benign condition in newborns due to immature liver function. - Choice D (Instant perinatal death) is incorrect as it does not specifically relate to the conditions mentioned.
Question 4 of 5
Causes of puerperal pyrexia are entirely obstetrically related.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Puerperal pyrexia refers to fever occurring after childbirth. Step 2: Causes can be obstetric (infection) or non-obstetric (e.g., urinary tract infection). Step 3: Non-obstetric causes are also common postpartum. Step 4: Therefore, puerperal pyrexia is not entirely obstetrically related. Step 5: Hence, the correct answer is B (FALSE).
Question 5 of 5
The main diagnostic feature of puerperal pyrexia is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever ≥ 38°C for three consecutive occasions. Puerperal pyrexia is defined as fever occurring after childbirth. The key diagnostic feature is the presence of fever (≥ 38°C) on three consecutive occasions, indicating a persistent infection. Choice B is incorrect because it doesn't specify the need for consecutive occasions. Choice C is incorrect as it extends the duration of fever to three weeks, which is too long for typical puerperal pyrexia. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions "occasionally" instead of "consecutively," which is not indicative of a consistent fever pattern seen in puerperal pyrexia.