ATI RN
Maternal Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is being treated for gonorrhea. Which medication combination should the nurse expect to be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Ceftriaxone is the first-line treatment for gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. Azithromycin is often prescribed in combination to treat possible co-infection with chlamydia. Penicillin (B) is not effective against gonorrhea. Tetracycline (C) is not recommended due to resistance issues. Levofloxacin (D) is no longer recommended due to resistance concerns. The combination of ceftriaxone and azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and possible chlamydia co-infection effectively.
Question 2 of 5
A client comes to a community clinic after being informed by a sexual partner of possible recent exposure to syphilis. The nurse will examine the client for which clinical manifestation of syphilis in the primary stage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chancre. In the primary stage of syphilis, a painless, firm, and non-itchy sore called a chancre appears at the site of infection. This sore can develop within 3 weeks of exposure to the bacteria. It is important for the nurse to examine the client for chancres as they are a hallmark sign of primary syphilis. B: A copper-colored rash involving the trunk and extremities is seen in the secondary stage of syphilis, not the primary stage. C: Flulike symptoms may occur in the primary stage but are not specific to syphilis. D: Condyloma lata are wart-like growths seen in secondary syphilis, not the primary stage. Therefore, the presence of a chancre is the key clinical manifestation to identify in the primary stage of syphilis.
Question 3 of 5
During the physical assessment of a female client with HPV, which should the nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Condylomata. HPV can manifest as genital warts or condylomata acuminata. These are flesh-colored growths that appear on the genital area. The presence of condylomata indicates an active HPV infection. Choices A and C are incorrect as purulent or malodorous discharge is not typically associated with HPV. Choice D is incorrect as HPV often presents with visible symptoms like condylomata.
Question 4 of 5
A 20-year-old college student expresses concern over the recent appearance of genital warts, an assessment finding her primary care provider confirms as attributable to HPV infection. Which client education should be included?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: There is a chance that the genital warts will clear up on their own without any treatment. Rationale: 1. Genital warts caused by HPV can sometimes resolve spontaneously without treatment. 2. This option emphasizes the possibility of self-resolution, which is a common occurrence. 3. Encouraging observation without immediate treatment aligns with current guidelines for managing HPV-related genital warts. 4. Avoiding unnecessary treatment helps prevent potential side effects and reduces healthcare costs. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Incorrect because immediate treatment is not always necessary for genital warts caused by HPV. C: Incorrect because HPV vaccination does not treat existing HPV infections, including genital warts. D: Incorrect because developing pelvic inflammatory disease is not directly related to the presence of genital warts caused by HPV.
Question 5 of 5
A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation discovers she is HPV positive at her prenatal visit. Upon examination, her provider detects genital warts. Which treatment is not recommended in this case?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Podophyllin. It is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential teratogenic effects. Carbon dioxide laser surgery, electrocautery, and surgical excision can be considered safer options for treating genital warts during pregnancy. Podophyllin should be avoided to prevent harm to the developing fetus.