A client is being prepared for cardiac catheterization. The nurse performs an initial assessment and records the vital signs. Which of the following data collected can be classified as subjective data?

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Question 1 of 9

A client is being prepared for cardiac catheterization. The nurse performs an initial assessment and records the vital signs. Which of the following data collected can be classified as subjective data?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Subjective data refers to information provided by the client based on their feelings, perceptions, or beliefs. Nausea is a symptom that the client experiences and reports subjectively. The client feels nauseous, which is not something directly measurable like blood pressure, heart rate, or respiratory rate. Therefore, nausea is the correct choice for subjective data. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed.

Question 2 of 9

What size of suction catheter would Wilma use for James, who is 6 feet 5 inches in height and weighing approximately 145 lbs?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct size of suction catheter for James would be Fr. 5. The selection of suction catheter size is based on the patient's height and weight, as well as the secretions to be cleared. A Fr. 5 catheter is appropriate for an average adult like James, as it balances between being too small or too large. Fr. 12 and Fr. 18 are too large for his size and could cause trauma, while Fr. 10 is slightly larger than needed, increasing the risk of mucosal damage. Therefore, Fr. 5 is the most suitable choice for James.

Question 3 of 9

To treat cervical cancer, a client has had an applicator of radioactive material placed in the vagina. Which observation by the nurse indicates a radiation hazard?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because having the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle can cause the radioactive material to shift, potentially leading to an uneven distribution of radiation. This could result in harmful exposure to surrounding tissues. A: Maintaining the client on strict bed rest is important to prevent displacement of the radioactive applicator. C: Providing a complete bed bath each morning is necessary for hygiene and does not pose a radiation hazard. D: Checking the applicator's position every 4 hours is essential to ensure proper placement and does not indicate a radiation hazard.

Question 4 of 9

A client has undergone the Snellen eye chart test and has 20/40 vision. Which of the ff is true for this client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the Snellen eye chart test, the first number (20) represents the distance at which the client is viewing the chart, and the second number (40) represents the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. Therefore, a client with 20/40 vision sees letters at 20 feet that others with normal vision can read at 40 feet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the interpretation of the 20/40 vision result from the Snellen eye chart test. B is incorrect because the client does not see letters at 40 feet that others can read at 20 feet. Choices C and D are incorrect because the Snellen eye chart test measures visual acuity, not color perception.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse who is caring for an unresponsive client formulates the nursing diagnosis, 'Risk for Aspiration related to reduced level of consciousness.' The nurse documents this nursing diagnosis as correct based on the understanding that which of the following is a characteristic of this type of diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a nursing diagnosis typically consists of two parts: the problem (Risk for Aspiration) and the related factor (reduced level of consciousness). This format helps clearly identify the client's health issue and its cause. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to a nursing diagnosis focusing on the client's response. Choice C is incorrect as it describes an outcome, not a diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect as a nursing diagnosis should be based on evidence, not made without support. Therefore, the correct choice is A due to the structure and clarity it provides in identifying the client's risk.

Question 6 of 9

A patient has orders to receive 1 L (1000 mL) of 5% dextrose and lactated Ringer’s solution to be infused over 8 hours. How many millilitres will be infused per hour?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 125 mL/h. To calculate the infusion rate per hour, we divide the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time in hours (8 hours). 1000 mL / 8 hours = 125 mL/h. This ensures a consistent and accurate infusion rate throughout the 8-hour period. Choice A (80 mL/h) is incorrect because it underestimates the infusion rate. Choice B (100 mL/h) is incorrect because it does not divide the total volume by the total time correctly. Choice D (150 mL/h) is incorrect because it overestimates the infusion rate.

Question 7 of 9

Clinical manifestations of Huntington’s disease include:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Huntington's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that presents with a triad of symptoms: abnormal involuntary movements (chorea), intellectual decline, and emotional disturbances. Chorea is a hallmark feature of Huntington's disease, caused by damage to the basal ganglia. Intellectual decline includes cognitive impairments such as memory loss and executive dysfunction. Emotional disturbances involve mood swings, irritability, and apathy. Therefore, all three manifestations are commonly seen in individuals with Huntington's disease, making D the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because they do not encompass all the key clinical features of Huntington's disease.

Question 8 of 9

. Which of the following laboratory test results would suggest to the nurse that a client has a corticotrophin- secreting pituitary adenoma?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma leads to excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production. 2. High corticotropin levels would be expected due to the adenoma's overproduction. 3. The high cortisol levels occur as a result of increased ACTH stimulating cortisol release from the adrenal glands. 4. Therefore, choice B (high corticotropin and high cortisol levels) is the correct answer. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because low cortisol levels would not be expected in a client with a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma. - Choice C is incorrect because low corticotropin levels would not align with the excessive ACTH production from the adenoma. - Choice D is incorrect as both low corticotropin and low cortisol levels would not be consistent with the pathophysiology of a corticotrophin-secreting pituitary adenoma.

Question 9 of 9

A client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study to confirm the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sigmoidoscopy. Sigmoidoscopy is a direct visualization procedure that allows for examination of the lower part of the colon and rectum, where colorectal cancer commonly occurs. This procedure can help identify any abnormal growths or polyps that may indicate cancer. Stool hematest (A) detects blood in stool but does not confirm colorectal cancer. Abdominal CT (B) provides imaging of the abdomen but may not definitively diagnose colorectal cancer. CEA scan (C) measures a tumor marker associated with colorectal cancer but is not a definitive diagnostic test. Thus, sigmoidoscopy is the most appropriate diagnostic study for confirming colorectal cancer.

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