ATI RN
Oxygen Cycle Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is being evaluated for obstructive sleep apnea. Which assessment finding supports this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daytime sleepiness and snoring. Daytime sleepiness is a common symptom of obstructive sleep apnea due to disrupted sleep patterns. Snoring is also a typical sign as it indicates airway obstruction during sleep. Morning headaches and blurred vision (choice B) can be associated with sleep apnea but are not specific. Intermittent chest pain at night (choice C) is more indicative of other conditions like acid reflux or heart issues. Difficulty falling asleep (choice D) is not a classic symptom of obstructive sleep apnea.
Question 2 of 5
A client with COPD is receiving oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. The client reports headache and drowsiness. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the client's oxygen saturation level. Headache and drowsiness can indicate oxygen toxicity due to excessive oxygen administration in COPD patients. Assessing the oxygen saturation level will help determine if the client is experiencing oxygen toxicity. If the oxygen saturation is high, decreasing the oxygen flow rate (choice A) may be necessary. Encouraging deep breaths (choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) can be done after assessing the oxygen saturation level.
Question 3 of 5
A client with asthma is prescribed a long-acting beta2-agonist. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: To prevent nocturnal asthma symptoms. Long-acting beta2-agonists help to relax and open the airways, preventing nocturnal asthma symptoms by maintaining bronchodilation throughout the night. This medication is not used for acute relief of bronchospasm (choice A), reducing airway inflammation (choice B), or thinning mucus secretions (choice D). It is specifically indicated for long-term control and prevention of asthma symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test is most definitive?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA). This test is most definitive for diagnosing pulmonary embolism as it provides detailed images of the blood vessels in the lungs, allowing for visualization of any blockages. Step-by-step rationale: 1. CTPA is the gold standard diagnostic test for pulmonary embolism due to its high sensitivity and specificity. 2. It can accurately identify the location and size of the blood clot in the pulmonary arteries. 3. CTPA is non-invasive and can be performed quickly, making it a preferred choice in the acute setting. Summary: A (Chest X-ray) is not sensitive enough to diagnose pulmonary embolism. B (D-dimer test) is a screening tool but not definitive for diagnosis. D (V/Q scan) is an alternative test but CTPA is more accurate and widely used.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with suspected pneumonia. Which diagnostic test is most definitive for confirming the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sputum culture and sensitivity. This test is most definitive for confirming pneumonia as it directly identifies the causative organism present in the sputum, guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Chest X-ray (A) can show infiltrates but doesn't confirm the pathogen. CBC (B) can show elevated white blood cells, but not specific to pneumonia. ABG analysis (D) assesses gas exchange and oxygenation status, not a direct confirmation of pneumonia.