ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTS. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct statement to include in the teaching for a client being discharged with a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTS is option A) "You may experience a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication." This statement is important to include because Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is known to cause sexual side effects, including decreased libido. Option B) is incorrect because Fluoxetine is typically recommended to be taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia if taken later in the day. Option C) is also incorrect because there are no specific urinary adverse effects associated with Fluoxetine that would require the client to urinate before taking the medication. Option D) is incorrect as well because while some SSRIs may cause light sensitivity, Fluoxetine is not commonly known for this side effect. Educationally, understanding the common side effects of medications like Fluoxetine is crucial for nurses to provide comprehensive patient education. By explaining potential side effects such as decreased libido, nurses empower patients to make informed decisions about their treatment and manage expectations regarding medication effects.
Question 2 of 5
An adolescent client has a new prescription for Clomipramine for OC. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To minimize the adverse effect of photophobia associated with Clomipramine, the client should be advised to wear sunglasses when outdoors. Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) known to cause anticholinergic effects like photophobia, which can be reduced by protecting the eyes with sunglasses when exposed to bright light.
Question 3 of 5
A client with tobacco use disorder is being educated about Nicotine replacement therapy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) "I should avoid eating right before chewing a piece of nicotine gum." This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because chewing nicotine gum after eating can reduce the absorption of nicotine, making the therapy less effective. It is recommended to wait at least 15 minutes after eating or drinking before using nicotine gum to ensure optimal absorption. Option B) "I will need to stop using the nicotine gum after 1 year" is incorrect because the duration of nicotine replacement therapy varies for each individual and should be determined by a healthcare provider based on the client's progress in quitting smoking. Option C) "I know that nicotine gum is a safe alternative to smoking during pregnancy" is incorrect because nicotine replacement therapy, including nicotine gum, should only be used during pregnancy under the guidance of a healthcare provider due to potential risks to the fetus. Option D) "I must chew the nicotine gum quickly for about 15 minutes" is incorrect because nicotine gum should be chewed slowly and intermittently over a 30-minute period to allow for proper absorption of nicotine through the oral mucosa. In an educational context, understanding the proper use of nicotine replacement therapy is crucial for clients with tobacco use disorder to successfully quit smoking. Educating clients on the correct administration of nicotine gum can enhance the effectiveness of the therapy and ultimately support their smoking cessation efforts.
Question 4 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Timolol. How should the nurse instruct the client to insert eye drops?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When administering eye drops, it is essential to instruct the client to drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac. This technique helps ensure proper distribution of the medication and reduces the risk of potential adverse effects. Pressing on the inside corner of the eye is done to prevent systemic absorption, applying drops directly on the cornea can cause irritation, and wiping the eyes after application can lead to decreased effectiveness of the medication.
Question 5 of 5
A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority finding to report to the provider is option D) Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body get rid of excess water and salt through urine. A low urine output could indicate decreased renal perfusion, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure or renal impairment. This finding needs prompt attention to prevent further complications. Option A) Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours could be expected with diuretic use, but it is not as concerning as a decreased urine output in this context. Option B) Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but may be a common side effect of diuretics and may not be a priority over decreased urine output. Option C) Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range and not an immediate concern unless it drops further. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing priority assessments in clients taking diuretics for heart failure. Understanding the rationale behind prioritizing certain findings can help nurses provide timely and appropriate care to prevent complications in clients receiving diuretic therapy.