A client is being discharged from the hospital and states that they are planning to get a body piercing in the navel within the next month. The client asks the nurse if she knows the healing time associated with such a procedure. The nurse investigates the answer and answers the client’s question by stating which of the following?

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Integumentary System CPT Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is being discharged from the hospital and states that they are planning to get a body piercing in the navel within the next month. The client asks the nurse if she knows the healing time associated with such a procedure. The nurse investigates the answer and answers the client’s question by stating which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer to the question is B) It should take up to 4 months for healing at the site of the navel. This answer is correct because body piercings, especially in areas like the navel which have limited blood supply, typically take a longer time to heal compared to other areas. The navel area is prone to movement and friction which can prolong the healing process. Option A) It should take up to 8 weeks for healing at the site of the navel is incorrect because healing in the navel area typically takes longer due to its location and limited blood flow. Option C) It should take up to 9 months for healing at the site of the navel is incorrect as this is an excessive amount of time for a navel piercing to heal under normal circumstances. Option D) It should take up to 2 weeks for healing at the site of the navel is incorrect as healing a navel piercing in just 2 weeks is unrealistic and does not align with the typical healing process for body piercings. In an educational context, understanding the healing times associated with body piercings is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide accurate information to patients. Educating patients on proper piercing aftercare and expected healing times can help prevent complications and ensure successful healing of the piercing site.

Question 2 of 5

What characteristic is commonly seen with dysplastic nevus syndrome?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Lesion has irregular color and asymmetric shape. Dysplastic nevus syndrome is characterized by atypical moles that exhibit irregular coloration, asymmetry in shape, and uneven borders. These moles are considered precursors to melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Understanding this characteristic is crucial in identifying potential early signs of melanoma and differentiating them from common moles. Option A) Associated with sun exposure is incorrect because dysplastic nevus syndrome is not primarily linked to sun exposure but rather to genetic factors. Option B) Precursor of squamous cell carcinoma is incorrect as dysplastic nevus syndrome is specifically associated with an increased risk of melanoma, not squamous cell carcinoma. Option C) Slow-growing tumor with rare metastasis is incorrect as dysplastic nevi are not typically slow-growing tumors; they are more concerning due to their potential to progress into melanoma, which can metastasize. Educationally, recognizing the features of dysplastic nevi is essential for healthcare professionals, particularly dermatologists and primary care providers, in conducting skin assessments, detecting early signs of melanoma, and advising patients on skin cancer prevention strategies like sun protection and regular skin checks. This knowledge can ultimately lead to early diagnosis and improved outcomes for individuals at risk for skin cancer.

Question 3 of 5

What should the nurse include in the instructions for a patient with urticaria?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of educating about the integumentary system and urticaria, the correct answer is B) Avoid contact with the causative agent. Urticaria, commonly known as hives, is often triggered by allergens or irritants. Instructing the patient to avoid contact with the causative agent is crucial in preventing or minimizing the occurrence of urticaria. This strategy addresses the root cause of the condition and helps in symptom management. Option A) Apply topical benzene hexachloride is incorrect because benzene hexachloride is a pesticide and toxic compound that should not be applied to the skin, especially in the case of urticaria where skin sensitivity is common. Option C) Gradually expose the area to increasing amounts of sunlight is incorrect as sunlight exposure can actually trigger or worsen urticaria in many individuals due to its potential to aggravate skin inflammation. Option D) Use over-the-counter antihistamines routinely to prevent the condition is incorrect because while antihistamines can help alleviate symptoms of urticaria, they are typically used for acute episodes rather than for prevention. Relying solely on antihistamines for prevention may not address the underlying cause of the condition. Educationally, understanding the importance of identifying and avoiding triggers in conditions like urticaria is essential for patients to effectively manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life. By providing accurate information and guidance on trigger avoidance, healthcare professionals can empower patients to take an active role in their skin health and overall well-being.

Question 4 of 5

What is the most common reason elective cosmetic surgery is requested by patients?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Improve self-image. Elective cosmetic surgery is most commonly requested by patients to enhance their self-image and boost their confidence. This procedure is chosen by individuals who want to alter a physical feature they are unhappy with, ultimately leading to a more positive self-perception. Option B) Remove deep acne scars is incorrect as this addresses a specific skin concern rather than a general desire to enhance self-image through elective cosmetic surgery. Option C) Lighten the skin in pigmentation problems is incorrect because it focuses on correcting a specific skin issue related to pigmentation, rather than a broad desire for cosmetic enhancement. Option D) Prevent skin changes associated with aging is incorrect as it pertains to anti-aging treatments rather than elective cosmetic surgery for self-image enhancement. In an educational context, understanding the underlying motivations for elective cosmetic surgery helps healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and guidance to patients considering such procedures. It is important to have open discussions with patients about their expectations, motivations, and potential risks involved in cosmetic surgery to ensure informed decision-making.

Question 5 of 5

When staging a pressure ulcer, a stage II ulcer is recognized as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In staging pressure ulcers, a stage II ulcer is recognized as a shallow ulcer with a reddened base, making option B the correct choice. This stage involves partial thickness loss of skin layers, typically presenting as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Redness and a moist or dry base are common characteristics. Option A is incorrect as it describes a stage I pressure ulcer, which involves intact skin with non-blanchable redness. Option C describes a stage III ulcer with full-thickness skin loss involving the dermis and possibly the subcutaneous tissue, not a stage II ulcer. Option D is indicative of a stage IV ulcer where there is extensive tissue damage, including bone involvement, which is not characteristic of a stage II ulcer. Educationally, understanding pressure ulcer staging is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those involved in wound care management. Proper staging guides appropriate treatment interventions, helps in monitoring healing progress, and prevents complications like infection. It is essential to accurately identify and categorize pressure ulcers to provide optimal care for patients.

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