ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.
Question 2 of 5
A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary choices by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Leafy green vegetables. Leafy green vegetables are rich in calcium, which is essential for bone health and can help prevent bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. Carrots (choice A), while nutritious, are not as high in calcium as leafy green vegetables. Milk (choice B) is also a good source of calcium but may not be suitable for clients who are lactose intolerant. Bananas (choice D) are a healthy fruit choice but do not provide significant amounts of calcium needed for osteoporosis.
Question 3 of 5
What is the appropriate action when a patient presents with chest pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate action when a patient presents with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which can be beneficial in cases of myocardial infarction. Nitroglycerin is commonly used for chest pain related to angina but is not the first-line treatment for all types of chest pain. Repositioning the patient may be necessary for comfort or assessment but is not the immediate priority. Surgery is not typically the first-line intervention for chest pain unless there are specific indications.
Question 4 of 5
Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
Question 5 of 5
A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.
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