ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is admitted to the ICU, which laboratory result must be reported immediately to the physician?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: platelets 18,000. A critically low platelet count can lead to life-threatening bleeding in the ICU. Normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000. A count of 18,000 indicates severe thrombocytopenia. Immediate reporting is crucial for prompt intervention. Rationale for why other choices are incorrect: A: Hematocrit of 48% is within normal range (male: 42-52%, female: 37-47%). B: paCO2 of 38 mm Hg is within normal range (35-45 mm Hg). D: WBC count of 8000 is within normal range (4000-11000/uL). In critical care settings, it is vital to prioritize and address life-threatening conditions promptly, hence the urgent need to report the critically low platelet count.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff. actions would the nurse include in the plan of care to reduce the symptoms of the patient who has vertigo?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid sudden movements. Vertigo is a type of dizziness where a person feels like they're spinning or the world around them is spinning. Sudden movements can worsen vertigo symptoms. By avoiding sudden movements, the nurse can help reduce the patient's vertigo symptoms. Avoiding noises (A) may help with other conditions like migraines, but it is not specifically helpful for vertigo. Encouraging fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not directly address vertigo symptoms. Administering analgesics (D) may help with pain but will not address the underlying cause of vertigo. Therefore, choosing option C is the most appropriate action to include in the plan of care for reducing vertigo symptoms.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is admitted for a splenectomy. Why is an injection of Vit. K ordered before surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. Step 2: A splenectomy increases the risk of bleeding due to decreased platelet sequestration. Step 3: Preoperative Vitamin K injection helps correct any clotting deficiencies. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as Vitamin K does not prevent infection. - Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin K does not directly promote healing. - Choice D is incorrect as Vitamin K does not dry secretions.
Question 4 of 9
When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse should stress the importance of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restricting sodium. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels. Sodium can worsen calcium excretion, exacerbating the condition. Restricting sodium can help reduce calcium loss. A: Restricting fluids is not necessary unless the client has kidney issues. B: Forcing fluids may not be beneficial and can lead to fluid overload. D: Restricting potassium is not typically necessary unless the client has kidney issues.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is assigned to care for a postoperative client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he’s impotent and says he’s concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client’s care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. This is the most appropriate intervention as it addresses the client's concern about impotence affecting his marriage by offering specialized help from a professional who can provide counseling and guidance on managing sexual issues related to diabetes. Referring the client to a sex counselor ensures that he receives expert support in addressing his specific concerns and helps improve his overall well-being and quality of life. A: Encouraging the client to ask questions about personality sexuality may not address the underlying issue of impotence and its impact on the marriage. B: Providing time for privacy is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. C: Providing support for the spouse or significant other is beneficial, but the primary focus should be on addressing the client's specific concerns about impotence.
Question 6 of 9
Which scenario best illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient? The nurse determines to remove a wound dressing when the patient reveals the time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates data validation in making a nursing clinical decision. The nurse assesses the time of the last dressing change and compares it with the appearance of old and new drainage. This process ensures that the decision to remove the wound dressing is based on accurate and validated data, leading to appropriate patient care. Choice B is incorrect because it does not involve data validation. The decision is driven by increased pain and family requests, without verifying the underlying cause. Choice C is incorrect as it involves responding to a patient's reported symptom (leg cramps), but it does not involve data validation in making the clinical decision. Choice D is incorrect as it relies solely on the patient's report of decreased mobility without further data validation.
Question 7 of 9
Why should the nurse closely monitor a client to ensure that the venous access device remains in the vein during a transfusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It minimizes the risk of circulatory overload. When a venous access device dislodges during a transfusion, there is a risk of the infusion going into the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to circulatory overload. This can result in fluid overload and potentially lead to serious complications such as heart failure. Monitoring the device ensures that the medication is delivered safely and effectively into the bloodstream. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. C: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of pulmonary complications, which are not typically associated with a dislodged venous access device. D: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of localized edema embolism, which is a blockage caused by a blood clot, air bubble, or other material in a blood vessel.
Question 8 of 9
When evaluating a client's response to fluid replacement therapy, the observation that indicates adequate tissue perfusion to vital organ is;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urinary output of 30 ml in an hour. Adequate tissue perfusion is best indicated by a sufficient urinary output, as it demonstrates proper kidney perfusion and function. A low urinary output may suggest inadequate perfusion. Explanation for other choices: B: Central venous pressure reading of 2 cm H20 is not a reliable indicator of tissue perfusion to vital organs. C: Pulse rates alone are not enough to indicate tissue perfusion as they can be influenced by various factors. D: Blood pressure readings alone may not accurately reflect tissue perfusion, especially in the context of fluid replacement therapy.
Question 9 of 9
An adult is to receive an IM injection of Morphine for post op pain. Which of the following is necessary for the nurse to assess prior to giving a narcotic analgesic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Before administering a narcotic analgesic like Morphine, assessing the client's level of alertness and respiratory rate is crucial to ensure they can tolerate the medication without compromising their breathing. Alertness indicates their ability to handle potential side effects, while respiratory rate is vital to monitor for any signs of respiratory depression. Choice B (last meal) is not directly related to giving a narcotic analgesic, although it may impact the absorption rate. Choice C (bowel habits) and last bowel movement are not immediately relevant to assessing the client's readiness for a narcotic analgesic. Choice D (history of addictions) is important but not the priority when assessing for immediate safety and efficacy of the medication.