ATI RN
ATI Nursing Proctored Pediatric Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is admitted to an acute care facility with a myocardial infarction. During the admission history, the nurse learns that the client also has hypertension and progressive systemic sclerosis. For a client with this disease, the nurse is most likely to formulate which nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For a client with progressive systemic sclerosis, also known as Scleroderma, the nurse is most likely to formulate a nursing diagnosis related to the risk for impaired skin integrity. Scleroderma is a chronic connective tissue disease that can lead to changes in skin texture and thickness, making the skin more prone to breakdown, ulcers, and impaired wound healing. Therefore, assessing and addressing the risk for impaired skin integrity is essential to prevent complications in clients with Scleroderma. While the other options may also be relevant considerations for this client, the priority nursing diagnosis in this case would be related to maintaining skin integrity.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a child after heart surgery. What should the nurse do if evidence of cardiac tamponade is found?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: If evidence of cardiac tamponade is found in a child after heart surgery, it is crucial for the nurse to immediately report this to the physician. Cardiac tamponade is a serious condition where excess fluid or blood accumulates in the pericardial sac, compressing the heart and affecting its ability to pump effectively. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent potential life-threatening outcomes. The physician would need to assess the child's condition, consider performing procedures to relieve the tamponade such as pericardiocentesis, and provide appropriate treatment to stabilize the child. Delaying reporting and action in cases of cardiac tamponade can lead to further complications and worsen the child's condition.
Question 3 of 9
Hemangiomas are the most common benign tumors of infancy, occurring more in full-term infants. Of the following, the most common risk factor of development of hemangioma is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Female infants are at higher risk for developing hemangiomas.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff instructions should be given to the clients family if a client with impaired swallowing has to take solid medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is important to instruct the client's family to check with the physician or pharmacist before crushing or breaking tablets, or opening capsules for a client with impaired swallowing who needs to take solid medication. Many medications have special formulations or coating that may alter their effectiveness if not taken whole. Consulting with a healthcare professional ensures that the medication remains safe and effective when modifying its form for a client with difficulty swallowing. Mixing the medication with food (option A) may also alter its effectiveness, so it is crucial to seek guidance before making any changes to the medication form. Using the liquid form of the medication (option B) may be a suitable alternative if available; however, this decision should also be discussed and approved by the healthcare provider. Performing ROM exercises after medication administration (option D) is unrelated to addressing the issue of impaired swallowing and medication administration.
Question 5 of 9
The MOST appropriate age of a child who helps to undress; puts 3 words together (subject, verb, object); and handles spoon well is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: These milestones are typically achieved around 24 months.
Question 6 of 9
Children with secondary nocturnal enuresis may have
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Psychosocial stressors can trigger secondary nocturnal enuresis after a period of dryness.
Question 7 of 9
A medical student observes that infants cry in response to another infant's cry. The MOST appropriate answer is that it represents
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Infants crying in response to others may indicate early empathy development.
Question 8 of 9
Which describes marasmus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Marasmus is a form of severe malnutrition characterized by a deficiency of both calories and protein in the diet. It typically occurs in young children and is often associated with a lack of adequate food intake. The classic presentation of marasmus includes extreme wasting of muscle and fat tissues, resulting in a gaunt appearance with thin limbs and a distended abdomen due to diminished muscle and subcutaneous fat. This differentiates it from kwashiorkor, another form of severe acute malnutrition characterized by edema and a protruding belly but with retained muscle mass. Therefore, option D, characterized by thin, wasted extremities and a prominent abdomen resulting from edema (ascites), accurately describes marasmus.
Question 9 of 9
A client with serum glucose level of 618mg/dl is admitted to the facility. He's awake and oriented, has hot dry skin, and has the following vital signs: temperature of 100.6F (38.1C), heart rate of 116 beats/min, and blood pressure of 108/70mHg. Based on these assessment findings, which nursing diagnosis take highest priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client's serum glucose level of 618mg/dl is indicative of severe hyperglycemia, likely due to uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. The client's presentation with hot dry skin, elevated heart rate, and low blood pressure suggests dehydration as a result of osmotic diuresis, which occurs in an attempt to excrete excess glucose. With an elevated heart rate and low blood pressure, it is essential to address the deficient volume to prevent further complications such as hypovolemic shock. Rehydration and fluid replacement are crucial interventions to help restore the client's fluid balance and prevent hemodynamic instability. Addressing the deficient volume related to osmotic diuresis should take the highest priority in this case.