A client is admitted to an acute care facility with a myocardial infarction. During the admission history, the nurse learns that the client also has hypertension and progressive systemic sclerosis. For a client with this disease, the nurse is most likely to formulate which nursing diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for impaired skin integrity. Myocardial infarction, hypertension, and progressive systemic sclerosis can lead to impaired circulation and skin breakdown. Clients with these conditions are at risk for pressure ulcers due to decreased blood flow and compromised skin integrity. The other options, B: Imbalanced nutrition, C: Constipation, and D: Ineffective thermoregulation, do not directly relate to the client's conditions or the potential complications associated with them. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client would be A: Risk for impaired skin integrity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Conjunctivae. Pallor is best assessed in the conjunctivae due to the transparent nature of the tissue, allowing for easy observation of paleness. The conjunctivae are the mucous membranes lining the inner surface of the eyelids and covering the sclera. Anemia can cause decreased hemoglobin levels, resulting in paleness of the mucous membranes. Assessing the scalp (A), chest (B), or axillae (C) may not provide a clear indication of pallor related to anemia. The conjunctivae offer a direct and reliable site to assess for pallor in patients with anemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Help the client don thromboembolic stocking or support hose during waking hours. This intervention helps decrease the risk for thrombus formation in polycythemia vera by promoting venous return and preventing blood pooling in the lower extremities. Compression stockings improve circulation and reduce the risk of blood clots. Isometric exercises (choice A) may increase blood pressure and heart rate, potentially worsening the risk of thrombus formation. Drinking excess fluid (choice C) can lead to hypervolemia and increase the risk of clotting. Resting immediately if chest pain develops (choice D) is important but does not directly address the prevention of thrombus formation in polycythemia vera.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent clot formation. Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits the formation of blood clots. In DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation), there is excessive clotting throughout the body, leading to organ damage. By administering heparin, we aim to prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because heparin does not increase clot formation; it works to inhibit clotting. Choice C is incorrect as heparin does not directly increase blood flow to target organs. Choice D is also incorrect as heparin does not decrease blood flow to target organs; its primary role is anticoagulation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chronic ache or pain. Persistent cough and chronic ache or pain are both common warning signs of cancer. Chronic pain can be a symptom of various types of cancer, signaling the presence of a tumor or cancerous growth. It is important for the client to seek medical evaluation to rule out any underlying serious condition. A: Persistent nausea is not typically considered a common warning sign of cancer. While it can be a symptom in certain types of cancer or due to treatment side effects, it is not as prominent as chronic ache or pain. B: Indigestion is a common symptom that can be caused by various non-cancer-related issues such as dietary habits, stress, or gastrointestinal disorders. It is not typically considered a direct warning sign of cancer. C: Rash is generally not a common warning sign of cancer. Rashes are more commonly associated with skin conditions, allergic reactions, or infections rather than being an indicator of cancer.