Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is 2 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A pain level of 8 is high and may indicate inadequate pain control or complications following surgery. Monitoring and managing pain is crucial postoperatively to ensure patient comfort and prevent complications. A heart rate of 88/min, capillary refill of 2 seconds, and a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) are within normal ranges and do not typically require immediate reporting unless in the context of other concerning signs or symptoms.

Question 2 of 5

A charge nurse is educating a group of unit nurses about delegating client tasks to assistive personnel. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is D: 'An RN evaluates the client's needs to determine which tasks are appropriate to delegate to assistive personnel.' This is an essential step in the delegation process to ensure that tasks are assigned appropriately based on the client's condition and the competencies of the assistive personnel. Option A is incorrect because while the nurse retains accountability for delegation decisions, the AP is responsible for their actions. Option B is incorrect as tasks should be within the AP's scope of practice regardless of training. Option C is incorrect as delegation typically involves assigning tasks from the RN to the AP, not between APs.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for iron supplements. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client understands the teaching about iron supplements, they should know that black, tarry stools are a normal side effect. This indicates that the medication is being absorbed and working effectively. Choices A and B are incorrect because iron supplements should not be taken with milk or orange juice, as these can interfere with the absorption of iron. Choice D is also incorrect because iron supplements are usually best absorbed on an empty stomach, so taking them before bedtime may not be ideal.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice. This option is suitable for a client with chronic pancreatitis as it is a low-fat, high-protein meal. Clients with pancreatitis should avoid high-fat foods like creamer, margarine, and avocados, making options A, B, and D incorrect choices.

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