ATI RN
Free Medical Surgical Certification Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client interested in smoking cessation is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select one that does not apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drink at least eight glasses of water each day. This statement does not directly relate to smoking cessation. Staying hydrated is important for overall health, but it is not a specific strategy for quitting smoking. Choices A, B, and D are all relevant to smoking cessation. A: Finding an activity to keep hands busy can help distract from the urge to smoke. B: Keeping snacks on hand can help manage cravings and replace the oral fixation of smoking. D: Making a list of reasons for quitting can provide motivation and remind the client of their goals.
Question 2 of 5
A client with asthma is being taught about peak flow meter use. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using the peak flow meter every morning provides a baseline measurement of lung function when the client is typically stable. This allows for early detection of changes and adjustment of treatment. Choice B is incorrect as waiting until feeling short of breath may be too late. Choice C is incorrect because using the peak flow meter before the inhaler may not provide an accurate measurement. Choice D is incorrect as using the peak flow meter after the inhaler may not reflect the true lung function.
Question 3 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. In a client with COPD, a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression and impending respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent hypoxia and respiratory arrest. Oxygen saturation of 91% (choice A) is low but not as critical as a low respiratory rate. Shortness of breath (choice C) is expected in COPD but does not indicate immediate danger. Use of accessory muscles (choice D) is a sign of respiratory distress, but a low respiratory rate is more concerning for imminent respiratory failure.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dullness on percussion. Pneumonia is characterized by consolidation of lung tissue, causing dullness on percussion due to increased density. Fremitus (A) and tactile fremitus (D) are decreased in conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, not pneumonia. Hyperresonance (B) is associated with conditions like emphysema, not pneumonia. In pneumonia, the affected area is consolidated, leading to dullness on percussion.
Question 5 of 5
A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the ability to ambulate without dyspnea indicates effective oxygen therapy. When a client can move without experiencing difficulty breathing, it suggests that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting their oxygenation needs. In contrast, options B, C, and D do not directly indicate the effectiveness of oxygen therapy. Option B (respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute) may be within normal range but does not confirm the therapy's efficacy. Option C (oxygen saturation of 92%) is below the desired range of 95-100%, indicating inadequate oxygenation. Option D (productive cough) is unrelated to the assessment of oxygen therapy effectiveness.