Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine. Morphine is a central nervous system depressant that can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation and potentially respiratory failure. This is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate intervention. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine is not typically associated with morphine use. B: An irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within a normal range and not a common adverse effect of morphine. C: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its action on the central nervous system, not necessarily indicating an adverse effect.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse practitioner assesses a client in the physician’s office. Which assessment findings support a suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the assessment findings of pericarditis, photosensitivity, polyarthralgia, and painful mucous membrane ulcers are classic manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Pericarditis can present as chest pain aggravated by deep breathing or lying flat, photosensitivity refers to skin rashes triggered by sunlight exposure, polyarthralgia involves joint pain in multiple joints, and painful mucous membrane ulcers are common in the mouth or nose. These findings align with the diagnostic criteria for SLE. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical presentation of SLE. Choice A includes facial erythema which is a common symptom, but the presence of profuse proteinuria, pleuritis, fever, and weight loss are not specific to SLE. Choices C and D include symptoms like weight gain, hypothermia, and edema which are not characteristic of SLE. In summary

Question 3 of 5

The initial neurological symptom of Guilain-Barre Syndrome is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid onset of weakness and tingling sensations in the legs. Step 2: Paresthesia refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, which is a common initial neurological symptom of GBS. Step 3: Absent tendon reflexes may occur in GBS due to muscle weakness but are not typically the initial symptom. Step 4: Dysrhythmias and transient hypertension are not typical symptoms of GBS and are not associated with its initial presentation. In summary, choice B is correct as paresthesia of the legs is a hallmark initial neurological symptom of Guillain-Barre Syndrome, while choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical presentation of GBS.

Question 4 of 5

What orders would likely be included fro a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Corticosteroid therapy. In multiple myeloma, corticosteroids are commonly used to help reduce inflammation, suppress the immune system, and slow the growth of cancer cells. This treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for the client. A: Bed rest is not typically prescribed for multiple myeloma unless there are specific complications requiring immobilization. B: Fluid restriction is not a common treatment for multiple myeloma unless there is a specific need to manage fluid balance. D: Calcium replacement therapy may be necessary in some cases of multiple myeloma due to bone involvement, but it is not a primary treatment option compared to corticosteroid therapy in managing the disease.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with abnormal sodium losses is receiving a house diet. To provide 1,600mg sodium daily, the nurse could supplement the patient’s diet with:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because 1 beef cube contains about 1,000mg of sodium. To reach 1,600mg, the patient needs an additional 600mg. 12oz of tomato juice contains approximately 600mg of sodium, making it the right choice. A: Not enough sodium from the beef cube and tomato juice. B: Too much sodium from the 16oz of tomato juice. C: Too much sodium from the 4 beef cubes.

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