ATI RN
Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine. Morphine is a central nervous system depressant that can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation and potentially respiratory failure. This is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate intervention. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine is not typically associated with morphine use. B: An irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within a normal range and not a common adverse effect of morphine. C: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its action on the central nervous system, not necessarily indicating an adverse effect.
Question 2 of 9
A 19 y.o. student develops trigeminal neuralgia. Which of the ff. actions will most likely aggravate her pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eating. Chewing food can trigger trigeminal nerve pain due to the movement and pressure applied on the nerve. The other choices (A: Sleeping, B: Reading, D: Cooking) do not involve the same level of jaw movement and pressure on the trigeminal nerve, thus are less likely to aggravate the pain. Therefore, eating is the most likely action to worsen trigeminal neuralgia symptoms in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff. would the nurse explain to the patient is indicated by a Snellen chart finding 20/80?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a Snellen chart reading of 20/80 means the patient can see at 20 feet what a normal eye can see at 80 feet. This indicates that the patient's vision is below average. Choice A is incorrect because it reverses the numerator and denominator. Choice C is incorrect because it does not accurately represent the Snellen chart findings. Choice D is incorrect because 20/80 is not considered normal vision.
Question 4 of 9
In order to educate clients, the nurse should understand that the most common site of cancer for a female is the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Uterine body. The rationale is that the most common site of cancer for females is uterine body, specifically endometrial cancer. This is due to the high prevalence of hormonal imbalances and estrogen exposure, which are risk factors for this type of cancer. The other choices, A: Uterine cervix, B: Vagina, and D: Fallopian tube, are less common sites of cancer in females compared to the uterine body. Understanding the prevalence and risk factors associated with each site of cancer is crucial for nurses to educate clients effectively.
Question 5 of 9
A newly diagnosed patient asks what asthma is. Which of the ff. explanations by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because asthma is characterized by inflammation and bronchoconstriction of the airways, leading to difficulty breathing. This explanation accurately describes the pathophysiology of asthma. Explanation for other choices: B: Fluid in the lungs is more indicative of conditions like pneumonia or pulmonary edema, not asthma. C: Asthma involves airway constriction and inflammation, not stretching and non-functionality. D: Asthma is not caused by infection but rather triggered by factors like allergens or irritants.
Question 6 of 9
While interviewing an older female patient of Asian descent, the nurse notices that the patient looks at the ground when answering questions. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consider cultural differences during this assessment. In many Asian cultures, avoiding direct eye contact is a sign of respect rather than depression. The nurse should be culturally sensitive and understand that different cultures have varying communication norms. By considering cultural differences, the nurse can build rapport and trust with the patient. Asking the patient to make eye contact (B) may be perceived as disrespectful and may hinder effective communication. Continuing with the interview and assuming depression (C) without further assessment is premature and may lead to misdiagnosis. Notifying the health care provider for a psychological evaluation (D) is not necessary at this stage as the behavior observed may be culturally influenced.
Question 7 of 9
An elderly patient, Mr. Cruz is being cared for by nurse Bennie because of pulmonary embolism. Nurse Bennie would anticipate an order for immediate administration of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant used for immediate treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation. It acts quickly by inhibiting clotting factors. Warfarin (A) is used for long-term anticoagulation but has a slower onset. Dexamethasone (C) is a corticosteroid used for inflammation, not thrombosis. Protamine sulfate (D) is used to reverse the effects of heparin but is not indicated for initial treatment.
Question 8 of 9
When documenting subjective data, the nurse should do which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using the client's own words in quotation marks ensures accurate representation of their subjective data. It maintains the integrity of the information provided by the client and improves communication between healthcare providers. Paraphrasing (choice B) may lead to misinterpretation or distortion of the client's statements. Validating with the client's family (choice C) may introduce bias or inaccurate information. Recording with nonspecific words (choice D) decreases the clarity and specificity of the documentation, which is essential for effective communication and decision-making in healthcare.
Question 9 of 9
After assessing the patient and identifying the need for headache relief, the nurse administers acetaminophen for the patient’s headache. Which action by the nurse is priority for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reassess the patient's pain level in 30 minutes. This is the priority action as it allows the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the acetaminophen in relieving the patient's headache. By reassessing the pain level, the nurse can determine if the medication is working or if further intervention is needed. A: Eliminating the headache from the care plan is not appropriate as the patient's comfort and pain relief should be a priority. B: Directing the nursing assistive personnel to inquire if the headache is relieved is not thorough assessment and does not provide direct evaluation of the patient's pain level. D: Revising the plan of care may be necessary based on the reassessment, but it is not the immediate priority compared to evaluating the patient's response to treatment.