ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client in the final stages of terminal cancer tells the nurse: “I wish I could be just be allowed to die. I’m tired of fighting this illness. I have lived life a good life. I only continue my chemotherapy and radiation treatment because my family wants me to.” What is the best nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Would you like to talk to a psychologist about your thoughts and feelings?" This response acknowledges the client's emotional distress and offers professional support. A psychologist can provide counseling and help the client explore their feelings and concerns about end-of-life decisions. Choice B is incorrect because it assumes the client's spiritual beliefs are the primary concern, neglecting the emotional and psychological aspects. Choice C involves more people in the decision-making process without addressing the client's individual needs. Choice D is dismissive and does not offer any support or explore the client's feelings further. In summary, choice A is the best response because it prioritizes the client's emotional well-being and offers appropriate support through professional counseling.
Question 2 of 9
On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, a client exhibits muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspecting a life- threatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Following thyroid surgery, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. 2. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include muscle twitching, hyperirritability, numbness, and tingling. 3. These symptoms align with the client's presentation, indicating a probable electrolyte imbalance. 4. Hypocalcemia is a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to parathyroid gland damage. 5. Prompt recognition and treatment of hypocalcemia are essential to prevent severe complications. Summary: B: Hyperkalemia - Not typically associated with thyroid surgery, symptoms differ. C: Hyponatremia - Unlikely post-thyroidectomy, symptoms don't match presentation. D: Hypermagnesemia - Rare post-thyroidectomy, symptoms and electrolyte disturbance don't align.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a new preoperative patient who is nil by mouth (NPO). The nurse notes that the patient has been on long-term oral steroid therapy. The nurse understands that which of the following is the reason that steroids cannot be abruptly stopped?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because abruptly stopping steroids can lead to adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the adrenal glands. This can result in a sudden drop in cortisol levels, which are essential for various physiological functions. Patients on long-term steroid therapy need a gradual taper to allow the adrenal glands to resume cortisol production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the physiological effects of stopping steroids abruptly.
Question 4 of 9
A client is admitted to the ICU, which laboratory result must be reported immediately to the physician?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: platelets 18,000. A critically low platelet count can lead to life-threatening bleeding in the ICU. Normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000. A count of 18,000 indicates severe thrombocytopenia. Immediate reporting is crucial for prompt intervention. Rationale for why other choices are incorrect: A: Hematocrit of 48% is within normal range (male: 42-52%, female: 37-47%). B: paCO2 of 38 mm Hg is within normal range (35-45 mm Hg). D: WBC count of 8000 is within normal range (4000-11000/uL). In critical care settings, it is vital to prioritize and address life-threatening conditions promptly, hence the urgent need to report the critically low platelet count.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following are examples of common factors in a client that may influence assessment priorities?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diet and exercise program. This is because a client's diet and exercise program directly impact their physical health and well-being, making it an important factor to consider when determining assessment priorities. Understanding their dietary habits and level of physical activity can help identify potential health risks or areas for improvement. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the client's physical health and well-being, which are crucial factors in determining assessment priorities. Standing in the community (B) may influence social interactions but does not necessarily impact assessment priorities. Ability to pay for services (C) relates to financial considerations rather than health assessment priorities. Developmental stage (D) may be important for understanding the client's cognitive and emotional development, but it is not as directly relevant to assessment priorities as diet and exercise.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse will assess a loss of ability in which of the following areas?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Balance. Loss of ability in balance can indicate various health issues like neurological disorders or musculoskeletal problems. The nurse can assess this by observing the patient's gait, balance while standing, and coordination. Speech (B) relates to communication abilities, judgment (C) involves decision-making skills, and endurance (D) is related to stamina and physical capacity, which are not directly linked to loss of ability.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. What is the best way to protect this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use the smallest needle possible for injections. In a client with thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), there is an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Using the smallest needle possible for injections reduces the risk of causing injury to blood vessels and tissues, minimizing bleeding complications. Limiting visits by family members (choice A) is not directly related to protecting the client's safety. Encouraging wheelchair use (choice B) is not necessary unless indicated for mobility reasons. Maintaining accurate fluid intake and output records (choice D) is important for overall client care but does not directly address the risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenia.
Question 8 of 9
A 16 y.o. girl is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is tearful and as she asks what she can do to prevent complications of the disease. Based on the data provided, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for her plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for transmission of infection. This is appropriate because the girl has genital herpes, which is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can be transmitted to others through sexual contact. Therefore, the main concern is preventing the spread of the infection to others. Pain (B) is a symptom of herpes but not the primary concern here. Health-seeking behaviors (C) may be relevant for education and prevention, but not the immediate focus. Ineffective sexuality pattern (D) is not directly related to the risk of transmission of infection in this case.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect is a dry, persistent cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. This is a distinctive side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Acne (A), diarrhea (B), and heartburn (D) are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are less likely side effects.