A client has undergone the Snellen eye chart test and has 20/40 vision. Which of the ff is true for this client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the Snellen eye chart test, the first number (20) represents the distance at which the client is viewing the chart, and the second number (40) represents the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. Therefore, a client with 20/40 vision sees letters at 20 feet that others with normal vision can read at 40 feet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the interpretation of the 20/40 vision result from the Snellen eye chart test. B is incorrect because the client does not see letters at 40 feet that others can read at 20 feet. Choices C and D are incorrect because the Snellen eye chart test measures visual acuity, not color perception.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Profound neuromuscular irritability. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a decrease in parathyroid hormone leading to low calcium levels. This can result in neuromuscular irritability such as muscle cramps, spasms, and tingling. Monitoring for neuromuscular symptoms is crucial as they can progress to severe complications like seizures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypoparathyroidism does not typically present with severe hypotension, excessive thirst, or acute gastritis. Monitoring for signs of hypocalcemia and neuromuscular irritability is essential in managing hypoparathyroidism.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, hyperglycemia and hypokalemia. Hyperglycemia can occur in adult clients due to various factors such as diabetes or stress. Hypokalemia can be a consequence of hyperglycemia or other conditions leading to potassium loss. Monitoring for these metabolic complications is essential to ensure the client's well-being. Other choices are incorrect because hypoglycemia and hypercalcemia (choice A) are less likely to occur concurrently in adult clients. Hyperglycemia and hyperkalemia (choice B) are less common as hyperkalemia is usually associated with renal dysfunction. Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia (choice D) are less likely to be monitored together as they are not commonly seen in the same clinical context.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal imbalances are the primary cause of BPH in aging males. As men age, testosterone levels decrease and estrogen levels may increase relative to testosterone, leading to prostate gland growth. This is why hormonal imbalances are more likely the cause of BPH in older males. Explanation of other choices: A: Chronic infection of the urinary tract does not directly cause BPH, although it can lead to similar symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency. B: Chronic cigarette smoking is not a direct cause of BPH, although it can contribute to overall prostate health and exacerbate symptoms. D: Chronic obstruction of the bladder due to stone is a separate condition from BPH, although it can cause similar urinary symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: weight loss. Weight loss is a common symptom of tuberculosis due to the impact of the infection on the body's metabolism and appetite. This symptom is important to recognize as it can be an early indicator of the disease. Dyspnea on exertion (B) is not a common symptom of tuberculosis, as it typically affects the lungs rather than causing difficulty breathing. Increased appetite (C) is not a typical symptom, as TB usually leads to decreased appetite and weight loss. Mental status changes (D) are not directly associated with tuberculosis and are more commonly seen in other conditions affecting the brain. Therefore, weight loss is the most relevant symptom to include in the teaching material for identifying possible cases of tuberculosis.