ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has type1 diabetes. Her husband finds her unconscious at home and administers glucagons, 0.5 mg S.C. She awakens in 5 minutes .Why her husband offer a complex carbohydrate snack to her as soon as possible?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. After administering glucagon for hypoglycemia, the body may deplete its glycogen stores from the liver. Offering a complex carbohydrate snack will help restore liver glycogen, preventing secondary hypoglycemia. This is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels in individuals with type 1 diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because offering a complex carbohydrate snack is primarily aimed at restoring liver glycogen to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes, not to address nausea/vomiting, stimulate appetite, or decrease glycogen levels.
Question 2 of 9
To treat cervical cancer, a client has had an applicator of radioactive material placed in the vagina. Which observation by the nurse indicates a radiation hazard?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because maintaining the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle can cause the radioactive material to shift within the client's body, increasing the risk of radiation exposure. This position should be avoided to prevent displacement of the applicator. A: Strict bed rest is appropriate to minimize movement and dislodgement of the applicator, ensuring proper treatment delivery. C: Providing a bed bath does not pose a radiation hazard as long as proper precautions are taken. D: Checking the applicator's position every 4 hours is essential for monitoring and ensuring it remains in place to deliver the intended treatment.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff dietary recommendations should a nurse give to a client taking diuretics?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Include potassium-rich foods. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Including potassium-rich foods helps prevent this deficiency. Choice B is incorrect because fruits and fruit juices are often good sources of potassium. Choice C is incorrect as protein-rich foods do not specifically address potassium needs. Choice D is incorrect as dairy products are also good sources of potassium. Therefore, recommending potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent hypokalemia in clients taking diuretics.
Question 4 of 9
In a client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, CD4+ levels are measured to determine the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. CD4+ cells are a type of white blood cell crucial for immune function. 2. HIV targets and destroys CD4+ cells, leading to immune system damage. 3. Measuring CD4+ levels helps determine the extent of this damage. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Summary: A: Presence of opportunistic infections - CD4+ levels indirectly affect susceptibility, but not measured for this purpose. C: Level of the viral load - Measured separately from CD4+ levels. D: Resistance to antigens - CD4+ levels do not directly indicate resistance.
Question 5 of 9
An adult suffered 2nd and third degree burns over 20% of hid body 2 days ago. What is the best way to assess the client’s fluid balance?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain strict records of intake and output. This is the best way to assess fluid balance in a burn patient because it provides quantitative data on fluid intake and output, helping to monitor for fluid imbalance. Monitoring skin turgor (B) is unreliable in burn patients due to skin damage. Weighing the client daily (C) may not accurately reflect fluid balance changes. Checking for edema (D) is not specific to assessing fluid balance in burn patients. Maintaining intake and output records allows for precise monitoring and early detection of fluid shifts, making it the most appropriate choice.
Question 6 of 9
A client has a serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl. During the physical examination, the nurse expects to assess:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. A serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl indicates hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular excitability from low calcium levels. Hegar's sign (B) is associated with pregnancy, Homan's sign (C) is a clinical test for deep vein thrombosis, and Goodell's sign (D) is a softening of the cervix during pregnancy. These signs are not relevant to a client with hypocalcemia.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff. subjective data questions would assist the nurse in assessing the patient’s eye health?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Asking about seeing halos around lights is relevant to assessing the patient's eye health as it could indicate conditions like glaucoma or cataracts. Upper respiratory infections (A), riding in a car (B), and scuba diving (C) are not directly related to eye health assessment. By focusing on symptoms directly related to the eyes, the nurse can gather relevant information for a more accurate assessment.
Question 8 of 9
A patient who was walking in the woods disturbed a beehive, was stung, and was taken to the emergency department immediately due to allergies to bee stings. Which of the ff. symptoms would the nurse expect to see upon admission of this patient? i.Pallor around the sting bites iv. Retinal hemorrhage ii.Numbness and tingling in the extremities v. Tachycardia iii.Respiratory stridor vi. Dyspnea
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4, 5, 2006. Upon admission, a patient with allergies to bee stings may exhibit tachycardia (increased heart rate) due to an allergic reaction. Respiratory stridor (high-pitched wheezing) may occur as a sign of airway inflammation. Retinal hemorrhage and dyspnea (difficulty breathing) are not typically associated with bee sting allergies. Pallor and numbness/tingling are also not common symptoms in this scenario. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
Question 9 of 9
A baby is born temporarily immune to the diseases to which the mother is immune. The nurse understands that this is an example of which of the following types of immunity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naturally acquired passive immunity. This type of immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from mother to baby through the placenta or breast milk, providing temporary protection. The baby does not produce its antibodies, hence it is passive. Choice B, naturally acquired active immunity, involves the body producing its antibodies after exposure to a pathogen. Choice C, artificially acquired passive immunity, involves receiving preformed antibodies from an external source. Choice D, artificially acquired active immunity, involves the body producing antibodies in response to vaccination.