ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has type1 diabetes. Her husband finds her unconscious at home and administers glucagons, 0.5 mg S.C. She awakens in 5 minutes .Why her husband offer a complex carbohydrate snack to her as soon as possible?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. After administering glucagon for hypoglycemia, the body may deplete its glycogen stores from the liver. Offering a complex carbohydrate snack will help restore liver glycogen, preventing secondary hypoglycemia. This is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels in individuals with type 1 diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because offering a complex carbohydrate snack is primarily aimed at restoring liver glycogen to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes, not to address nausea/vomiting, stimulate appetite, or decrease glycogen levels.
Question 2 of 5
A brain abscess is a collection of pus within the substance of the brain and is caused by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a brain abscess can be caused by direct invasion of the brain, spread of infection by other organs, and spread of infection from nearby sites. Direct invasion can occur from trauma or surgery, while infections from other organs like the lungs or heart can travel through the bloodstream to the brain. Infections from nearby sites such as the sinuses or ears can also spread to the brain. Therefore, all of these mechanisms can lead to the formation of a brain abscess. Choices A, B, and C alone do not encompass all the possible causes of a brain abscess, making D the correct comprehensive answer.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has cloudy penile discharge. For which additional symptoms of urethritis should the nurse assess?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Painful and frequent urination. Cloudy penile discharge is a common symptom of urethritis, which is inflammation of the urethra. Painful and frequent urination are classic symptoms of urethritis due to irritation and inflammation of the urinary tract. Throat or rectal infection (choice A) are not typically associated with urethritis. Chancres or vesicles on the genitals (choice B) are more indicative of sexually transmitted infections like syphilis or herpes. Oliguria and flank pain (choice D) are more suggestive of kidney or urinary tract issues rather than urethritis.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse notes that a client’s wound has not improved despite consistent wound care as outlined in the care plan. What should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Reassessing the wound and client's condition allows the nurse to identify any factors contributing to the lack of improvement. Step 2: It helps determine if the current care plan needs modifications or if there are underlying issues affecting healing. Step 3: This step ensures a comprehensive evaluation before making any changes to the care plan, promoting evidence-based practice. Step 4: Choosing this option aligns with the nursing process of assessment, which is crucial for making informed decisions in client care. Summary: Option A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of reassessment to gather more information and make informed decisions. Discontinuing the care plan (Option B) without assessment can be harmful. Increasing dressing changes (Option C) may not address the underlying issue. Referring immediately (Option D) may be premature without reassessment.
Question 5 of 5
After a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy, a client is likely to undergo hormone replacement therapy. A transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is performed to treat which type of cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy is the surgical removal of the pituitary gland's adenohypophysis. 2. The procedure is used to treat pituitary tumors, which can be benign or malignant, but commonly referred to as pituitary adenomas. 3. Pituitary adenomas may secrete hormones excessively, leading to various endocrine disorders. 4. Hormone replacement therapy is required post-surgery to manage hormonal deficiencies. 5. Therefore, the correct answer is C (Pituitary carcinoma). Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not involve the pituitary gland, which is the primary target of a transsphenoidal adenohypophysectomy.