A client has type1 diabetes. Her husband finds her unconscious at home and administers glucagons, 0.5 mg S.C. She awakens in 5 minutes .Why her husband offer a complex carbohydrate snack to her as soon as possible?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. After administering glucagon for hypoglycemia, the body may deplete its glycogen stores from the liver. Offering a complex carbohydrate snack will help restore liver glycogen, preventing secondary hypoglycemia. This is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels in individuals with type 1 diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because offering a complex carbohydrate snack is primarily aimed at restoring liver glycogen to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes, not to address nausea/vomiting, stimulate appetite, or decrease glycogen levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in the four-point gait with partial weight bearing, the client should move the right crutch ahead first to provide support and stability, followed by the left foot. This sequence ensures proper weight distribution and balance. Moving both crutches together (B) may compromise stability. Moving the left crutch and right foot together (C) may cause uneven weight distribution. Moving both crutches and weaker leg together (D) may not provide adequate support for the weaker leg.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. This is indicative of Horner's syndrome, which occurs due to the disruption of sympathetic nerve supply. Miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping eyelid), and anhidrosis (lack of sweating) are classic signs of Horner's syndrome. These symptoms occur when the tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. Summary of other choices: B: Chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever are more commonly associated with lung cancer but not specific to Horner's syndrome. C: Arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of arm and hand muscles are not typical signs of Horner's syndrome. D: Hoarseness and dysphagia are more common symptoms of compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve, not Horner's syndrome.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: chronic biliary inflammation or obstruction. Biliary cirrhosis is a condition characterized by scarring of the liver due to long-term damage to the bile ducts. Chronic biliary inflammation or obstruction can lead to the build-up of bile in the liver, causing damage over time. Acute viral hepatitis (choice A) typically does not directly cause biliary cirrhosis. Alcohol hepatotoxicity (choice B) is more commonly associated with alcoholic liver disease rather than biliary cirrhosis. Hepatic failure with prolonged venous hepatic congestion (choice D) may lead to liver cirrhosis, but it is not specific to biliary cirrhosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. A serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl indicates hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular excitability from low calcium levels. Hegar's sign (B) is associated with pregnancy, Homan's sign (C) is a clinical test for deep vein thrombosis, and Goodell's sign (D) is a softening of the cervix during pregnancy. These signs are not relevant to a client with hypocalcemia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a brain abscess can be caused by direct invasion of the brain, spread of infection by other organs, and spread of infection from nearby sites. Direct invasion can occur from trauma or surgery, while infections from other organs like the lungs or heart can travel through the bloodstream to the brain. Infections from nearby sites such as the sinuses or ears can also spread to the brain. Therefore, all of these mechanisms can lead to the formation of a brain abscess. Choices A, B, and C alone do not encompass all the possible causes of a brain abscess, making D the correct comprehensive answer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Classic full-blown AIDS presents with tumors and opportunistic infections due to severe immune system suppression. Step 2: These manifestations occur when CD4 cell count drops significantly, leading to inability to fight infections. Step 3: Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (Choice A) can be seen in early HIV infection, not necessarily in full-blown AIDS. Step 4: Sudden weight loss, fever, and malaise (Choice B) are non-specific symptoms seen in various conditions, not specific to AIDS. Step 5: Fever, weight loss, night sweats, and diarrhea (Choice D) are common symptoms but lack the specificity of tumors and opportunistic infections seen in classic full-blown AIDS.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased resistance to infection. Lymphocytes are a crucial part of the immune system, responsible for fighting off infections. A decrease in the number of lymphocytes with age leads to a weakened immune response, making individuals more susceptible to infections. - Choice B: Cognitive problems, is not directly related to lymphocyte levels. - Choice C: Urinary incontinence, is not a typical effect of decreased lymphocytes. - Choice D: Decrease in various blood components, is too broad and not specific to the role of lymphocytes in immunity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because decorticate posturing is characterized by flexion of both upper and lower extremities. This occurs due to damage to the cerebral hemispheres, resulting in abnormal muscle contractions. Choice B describes decerebrate posturing, which is associated with extension of elbows and knees. Choice C is incorrect as it describes abnormal posturing seen in other conditions. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a different type of abnormal posturing.