ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has squamous cell cancer of the right lung that has metastasized to the brain. In addition to chemotherapy for lung cancer, the physician prescribes lomustine (CeeNU), 100 mg/m2 as a single dose, to treat the brain metastasis. What are the major administration and excretion routes of lomustine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: I.V. administration and urinary excretion. Lomustine is typically administered intravenously, allowing for rapid systemic distribution. The drug is metabolized in the liver and excreted primarily through the kidneys, thus the urinary route. This choice is correct as lomustine's pharmacokinetics align with this pattern. A: Oral administration and urinary - While some drugs are administered orally, lomustine is not typically given orally due to poor bioavailability. C: I.V. administration and fecal excretion - Lomustine is not primarily excreted via the feces, making this choice incorrect. D: Oral administration and fecal excretion - Lomustine is not primarily excreted via the feces, making this choice incorrect.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff is a sign of urinary retention in older adults with a neurologic deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a behavior change. Urinary retention in older adults with a neurologic deficit can manifest as a behavior change, such as increased agitation, confusion, or restlessness due to discomfort from the inability to empty the bladder. Amnesia (A) is memory loss and not directly related to urinary retention. Hypertension (B) and hypotension (C) are related to blood pressure regulation and are not specific signs of urinary retention. In contrast, a behavior change (D) is a common and characteristic sign indicating urinary retention in this population.
Question 3 of 9
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. First, the nurse needs to assess the severity of the latex allergy to determine the appropriate interventions. Understanding the type of reaction can help guide treatment and prevent future exposure. Isolating the patient (choice A) is not necessary unless there is a severe reaction. Terminating the interview (choice C) prematurely is not appropriate as crucial information may be missed. Documenting the allergy (choice D) is important but not as urgent as assessing the reaction type.
Question 4 of 9
A client with Addison’s disease comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. When assessing this client, the nurse should stay alert for signs and symptoms of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone. This leads to sodium and potassium imbalances. Low aldosterone causes sodium loss and potassium retention, resulting in sodium and potassium abnormalities. The other choices, A, B, and C, do not directly relate to Addison's disease. Calcium and phosphorus abnormalities are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Sodium and chloride, and chloride and magnesium imbalances are not primary concerns in Addison's disease. Therefore, staying alert for signs and symptoms of sodium and potassium abnormalities is crucial in managing and monitoring a client with Addison's disease.
Question 5 of 9
A client who is receiving a blood transfusion begins to experience chills, shortness of breath, nausea, excessive perspiration, and a vague sense of uneasiness. What is the nurse’s first best action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stop the infusion. This is the best action because the client is likely experiencing a transfusion reaction. Stopping the infusion immediately is crucial to prevent further complications. Reporting the signs and symptoms to the healthcare provider (A) can cause a delay in addressing the reaction. While monitoring vital signs (B) and assessing respiratory status (C) are important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and prevent a severe reaction.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse will monitor J.E. for the following signs and symptoms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs and symptoms listed are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is a serious condition where blood clotting and bleeding occur simultaneously. Change in level of consciousness can indicate hypoperfusion from clotting in blood vessels. Tachypnea and tachycardia can result from tissue hypoxia. Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical signs and symptoms of DIC. Choice B suggests a possible myocardial infarction or acute coronary syndrome. Choice C indicates a possible thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or acute limb ischemia. Choice D suggests a mix of symptoms that do not typically present together in DIC.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is disease process characterized by a chronic progressive inflammation of the sacroiliac and costovertebral joints and adjacent soft tissue?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ankylosing spondylitis. This disease process is characterized by chronic progressive inflammation of the sacroiliac and costovertebral joints and adjacent soft tissue. Ankylosing spondylitis specifically affects the spine and large joints. Rheumatoid arthritis (A) is characterized by joint inflammation and primarily affects small joints. Scoliosis (B) is a condition characterized by an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not inflammation of the sacroiliac and costovertebral joints. Kyphosis (C) is an excessive outward curvature of the spine, not related to inflammation of the sacroiliac and costovertebral joints.
Question 8 of 9
A client receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for impaired skin integrity. Which intervention should be part of this client’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas. Soap can irritate the skin and exacerbate the risk for impaired skin integrity in a client receiving radiation therapy. By avoiding soap, we minimize the risk of skin breakdown and promote skin healing. B: Applying talcum powder can actually worsen skin irritation and should be avoided. C: Wearing a lead apron is not relevant to the nursing diagnosis of risk for impaired skin integrity. D: Removing thoracic skin markings is not necessary for skin integrity and may disrupt the treatment plan.
Question 9 of 9
What is the causative agent in HIV/AIDS?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Human, T-cell lymphotrophic virus, as it is the causative agent for HIV/AIDS. This virus specifically targets and infects the body's T-cells, weakening the immune system. Trichomonas vaginalis, Treponema pallidum, and Chlamydia trachomatis are all different pathogens that do not cause HIV/AIDS. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, and Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the specific viral agent responsible for HIV/AIDS.