A client has possible malignancy of the colon, and surgery is scheduled. The rationale for administering Neomycin preoperatively is to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Neomycin is given preoperatively to decrease and retard the growth of normal bacteria in the intestines. This helps reduce the risk of infection during surgery by minimizing the number of bacteria present in the colon. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because Neomycin is not given to prevent infection postoperatively, eliminate the need for preoperative enemas, or treat cancer of the colon. The main purpose of administering Neomycin in this scenario is to create a sterile surgical field by reducing the normal flora in the intestines.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Right ventricular hypertrophy. Elevated pulmonary vascular pressures lead to increased resistance in the pulmonary circulation, causing the right ventricle to work harder to pump blood to the lungs. Over time, this can result in hypertrophy of the right ventricle as it adapts to the increased workload. Left atrial atrophy (A) and right atrial atrophy (C) are unlikely as the atria are not directly affected by elevated pulmonary pressures. Left ventricular hypertrophy (B) is not the correct choice as it typically occurs in response to systemic hypertension, not pulmonary hypertension.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stage 2 hypertension. The patient's BP readings consistently fall within the range of 160-179 systolic or 100-109 diastolic, which aligns with the criteria for Stage 2 hypertension based on the current guidelines. This classification indicates a higher level of hypertension that requires prompt medical attention and intervention to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the BP readings provided, falling outside the range for prehypertension, Stage 1 hypertension, and posthypertension.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the inability to move the affected leg post lumbar microdiskectomy could indicate a serious complication like nerve damage or blood clot. This would require immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Incisional pain (A) is common and can be managed with pain medication. A two-inch area of bleeding on the dressing (C) is concerning but can be managed with proper wound care unless it is excessive. Muscle spasm (D) is also common postoperatively and can be managed with medications or physical therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Raccoon eyes. Basilar skull fracture can result in periorbital bruising, known as raccoon eyes, due to blood pooling in the soft tissues around the eyes. This occurs because the fracture involves the base of the skull near the orbits. Choice B: Amnesia is not a typical symptom of basilar skull fracture. Amnesia may occur in head injuries but is not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice C: Halo sign is a term used to describe a ring of clear fluid surrounding a blood spot, typically seen in cases of a cerebrospinal fluid leak from the ear or nose, not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice D: Paresthesia, which refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, is not a common symptom of basilar skull fractures. It is more associated with nerve damage rather than fractures involving the base of the skull.