ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has possible malignancy of the colon, and surgery is scheduled. The rationale for administering Neomycin preoperatively is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Neomycin is given preoperatively to decrease and retard the growth of normal bacteria in the intestines. This helps reduce the risk of infection during surgery by minimizing the number of bacteria present in the colon. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because Neomycin is not given to prevent infection postoperatively, eliminate the need for preoperative enemas, or treat cancer of the colon. The main purpose of administering Neomycin in this scenario is to create a sterile surgical field by reducing the normal flora in the intestines.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff is the characteristic of a ketogenic diet that is suggested for children with seizures?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (High fat diet) Rationale: 1. Ketogenic diet for seizures aims to produce ketones for brain energy, achieved through high fat intake. 2. High fat intake helps induce ketosis, which may help reduce seizures in some children. Incorrect Choices: A: High carbohydrate diet - Contradicts the purpose of a ketogenic diet. C: High protein diet - Excessive protein can hinder ketosis and is not the primary focus of a ketogenic diet. D: Low fat diet - Opposite of the high fat requirement for a ketogenic diet to induce ketosis.
Question 3 of 9
Mr. Reyes has a possible skull fracture. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs of brain injury, such as altered level of consciousness, unequal pupil size, and clear fluid draining from the nose or ears, indicate a need for urgent medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because hemorrhaging from the oral cavity is not a common sign of a skull fracture. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the foot of the bed is not appropriate for a skull fracture but may be done for shock. Choice D is incorrect because decreased intracranial pressure and temperature are not typical symptoms of a skull fracture.
Question 4 of 9
Olympic gymnast Ms. Slovenski sufferd a great fall and suffered a great fall and fractured her femur. Approximately after 20 hours in the hospital she became dyspneic, tachypneic, and with scattered crackles in her lung fields. She is coughing up large amounts of thick, white sputum. The nurse correctly interprets this as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: fat embolism syndrome related to femur fracture. Fat embolism syndrome occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and travel to the lungs, causing respiratory distress. In this case, the patient's femur fracture likely led to fat embolism, explaining her dyspnea, tachypnea, crackles, and thick sputum. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the patient's presentation and history, making them incorrect. Choice A suggests smoke inhalation, which is not supported by the scenario. Choice B mentions pneumonia from bedrest, which is not a common complication of immobility. Choice D proposes hypovolemic shock from multiple trauma, which does not explain the respiratory symptoms and sputum production observed in the patient.
Question 5 of 9
A client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sigmoidoscopy. This procedure allows direct visualization of the lower colon and rectum, enabling the detection of colorectal cancer. Stool hematest (A) detects blood in the stool but does not confirm cancer. Abdominal CT (B) can show abnormalities but is not specific for colorectal cancer. CEA scan (C) measures a tumor marker but is not definitive for diagnosis. Sigmoidoscopy (D) is the gold standard for diagnosing colorectal cancer as it allows for direct visualization and tissue biopsy.
Question 6 of 9
After assessment of a client in an ambulatory clinic, the nurse records the data on the computer. The nurse recognizes which of the following as objective data?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because auscultation of the lungs involves direct observation and measurement, making it objective data. This data is based on what the nurse hears through the stethoscope, which can be verified and measured. Choices B, C, and D involve subjective experiences or interpretations that cannot be directly observed or measured. Complaint of nausea, sensation of burning, and belief in demons are all based on the client's feelings, perceptions, or beliefs, which are subjective and can vary from person to person. Objective data is factual, measurable, and observable, making choice A the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
. A client is diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should anticipate which laboratory test result?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased serum sodium level. In SIADH, there is an excessive release of ADH, causing water retention and dilution of sodium in the blood. This leads to hyponatremia. B: Increased blood urea nitrogen and C: Decreased serum creatinine level are not typically associated with SIADH. D: Increased hematocrit is not a typical finding in SIADH, as it is more related to dehydration. Therefore, the most anticipated laboratory test result in a client with SIADH is a decreased serum sodium level due to dilutional hyponatremia.
Question 8 of 9
One of the dangers of treating hypernatremia is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cerebral edema. Hypernatremia is an elevated sodium level in the blood, which can lead to osmotic shifts causing water to move out of cells, including brain cells. This can result in cerebral edema, potentially leading to neurological complications. Incorrect choices: A: Red blood cell crenation - This occurs in hypertonic solutions, not hypernatremia. C: Red blood cell hydrolysis - Hypernatremia doesn't directly cause red blood cell hydrolysis. D: Renal shutdown - Hypernatremia can stress the kidneys, but it doesn't typically lead to renal shutdown.
Question 9 of 9
An adult has been diagnosed with some type of anemia. The results of his blood tests showed: decreased WBC, normal RBC, decreased HCT, decreased Hgb. Based on these data, which of the following nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize as the most important?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potential for infection. The decreased WBC count indicates reduced ability to fight off infections, making this the priority nursing diagnosis. Normal RBC count rules out anemia-related complications. Decreased HCT and Hgb indicate possible anemia but do not directly relate to infection risk. Choices B and C are not as critical as the potential for infection due to the significant impact on the individual's health and well-being. Choice D, fluid volume excess, is not directly related to the blood test results provided.