ATI RN
Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first administration of chorambucil might this reaction occur?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia (hair loss) is a common adverse reaction of chlorambucil, typically occurring 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration. This is due to the drug's effect on rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Immediate onset (Choice A) is unlikely as it takes time for the drug to affect hair growth. One week (Choice C) is too soon for alopecia to manifest. One month (Choice D) is too long as alopecia usually occurs earlier. Therefore, the correct window for alopecia onset after chlorambucil administration is 2 to 3 weeks.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with hypoglycemia. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should recommend:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet helps stabilize blood sugar levels and prevents hypoglycemic episodes. Carbohydrates cause rapid spikes and drops in blood sugar, while protein helps maintain stable levels. Avoiding fasting also helps regulate blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect as increasing saturated fat and fasting can worsen hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect as vitamins and iron do not directly address hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as relying on sugary foods like candy bars can lead to further blood sugar imbalances.
Question 3 of 9
What orders would likely be included fro a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Corticosteroid therapy. In multiple myeloma, corticosteroids are commonly used to help reduce inflammation, suppress the immune system, and slow the growth of cancer cells. This treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for the client. A: Bed rest is not typically prescribed for multiple myeloma unless there are specific complications requiring immobilization. B: Fluid restriction is not a common treatment for multiple myeloma unless there is a specific need to manage fluid balance. D: Calcium replacement therapy may be necessary in some cases of multiple myeloma due to bone involvement, but it is not a primary treatment option compared to corticosteroid therapy in managing the disease.
Question 4 of 9
Of the following types of nursing diagnoses, which one is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actual nursing diagnosis. An actual nursing diagnosis is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics, such as signs and symptoms exhibited by the patient. This helps in identifying the specific health issues that the patient is currently experiencing. In contrast, a risk nursing diagnosis is focused on potential health problems that the patient may develop in the future. Possible nursing diagnosis involves uncertain or unclear health issues that require further assessment. Wellness diagnosis is aimed at enhancing health and promoting well-being, rather than addressing existing health problems. Therefore, the presence of major defining characteristics is crucial in confirming an actual nursing diagnosis.
Question 5 of 9
A nursing assessment for a patient with a spinal cord injury leads to several pertinent nursing diagnoses. Which nursing diagnosis is the highest priority for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for impaired skin integrity. This is the highest priority as patients with spinal cord injuries are at high risk for pressure ulcers due to immobility. Preventing skin breakdown is crucial to avoid complications. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent. Choice B may be a concern but preventing skin breakdown takes precedence. Choices C and D are important but not life-threatening like potential skin issues in this patient population.
Question 6 of 9
For a patient who is being discharged on digoxin, the nurse should include which of the ff. in an explanation to the patient on the signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Halos around lights. Digoxin toxicity can cause visual disturbances like seeing halos around lights, which is a common symptom. This is due to its effect on the eyes. Poor appetite (choice A) is a common side effect but not specific to toxicity. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity. Tachycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with digoxin toxicity, but visual disturbances like halos around lights are more specific and should be explained to the patient.
Question 7 of 9
While interviewing an older female patient of Asian descent, the nurse notices that the patient looks at the ground when answering questions. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consider cultural differences during this assessment. In many Asian cultures, avoiding direct eye contact is a sign of respect rather than depression. The nurse should be culturally sensitive and understand that different cultures have varying communication norms. By considering cultural differences, the nurse can build rapport and trust with the patient. Asking the patient to make eye contact (B) may be perceived as disrespectful and may hinder effective communication. Continuing with the interview and assuming depression (C) without further assessment is premature and may lead to misdiagnosis. Notifying the health care provider for a psychological evaluation (D) is not necessary at this stage as the behavior observed may be culturally influenced.
Question 8 of 9
A client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read her chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because dysplasia refers to the alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells. Dysplasia is an abnormal growth or development of cells that can be a precursor to cancer. It is characterized by changes in cell size, shape, and organization, which can be seen in Papanicolaou tests. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an undifferentiated tumor, not dysplasia. Choice B is incorrect as it describes hyperplasia, not dysplasia. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to metaplasia, not dysplasia. In summary, dysplasia is specifically about the abnormal changes in the appearance and organization of differentiated cells, making choice D the correct definition.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse has taught a patient with thrombocytopenia how to prevent bleeding. Which of the ff. is the best evidence that the teaching has been effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because using an electric razor instead of a safety razor demonstrates understanding of the risk of injury associated with thrombocytopenia. This action shows practical application of the teaching to prevent bleeding. Choice A only indicates awareness but not necessarily action. Choice B shows knowledge but not necessarily application. Choice D is related to general healthcare knowledge but not directly linked to bleeding prevention in thrombocytopenia.