Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first administration of chorambucil might this reaction occur?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia is a common adverse reaction to chlorambucil, a type of chemotherapy drug that can cause hair loss. Alopecia typically occurs around 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration of chlorambucil. This is because chemotherapy drugs affect rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Hair loss is a well-known side effect of many chemotherapy drugs, and it is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Incorrect choices: A: Immediately - Hair loss does not occur immediately after the first administration of chlorambucil. C: 1 week - Hair loss typically occurs later than 1 week after starting chemotherapy. D: 1 month - While hair loss can occur within a month, it is more likely to happen sooner, around 2 to 3 weeks after starting the medication.

Question 2 of 5

The activation of B cells in humoral immunity is assisted by which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Helper T cells. Helper T cells play a crucial role in activating B cells by releasing cytokines that stimulate B cell proliferation and differentiation. They also help in the production of antibodies. Cytotoxic T cells (A) are involved in cell-mediated immunity, not humoral immunity. Suppressor T cells (B) regulate the immune response and do not directly assist in B cell activation. Neutrophils (D) are phagocytic cells involved in innate immunity, not in activating B cells in humoral immunity.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following lab value profiles should the nurse know to be consistent with hemolytic anemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A): 1. Increased RBC: Hemolytic anemia leads to increased RBC production as the body compensates for the destruction of red blood cells. 2. Decreased bilirubin: Bilirubin levels decrease due to the accelerated breakdown of red blood cells. 3. Decreased Hgb and Hct: Hemolysis causes a decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels as red blood cells are destroyed. 4. Increased reticulocytes: Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells released by the bone marrow in response to increased RBC destruction. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to increased, not decreased, bilirubin levels. - Choice C is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to decreased, not increased, Hgb and Hct levels. - Choice D is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would not lead to increased levels of all parameters

Question 4 of 5

A 72 y.o. man is admitted to a skilled care facility following a stroke. When the nursing assistant is bathing him, he makes a sexual remark and tries to touch her inappropriately. The assistant finishes the bath, then tells the LPN in charge, “I refuse to take care of that dirty old man!” Which response by the nurse is best?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it acknowledges the patient's behavior is likely due to the stroke affecting his inhibitions. Finding a male assistant respects both the patient's dignity and the nursing assistant's comfort. Choice A is inappropriate as physical violence is never an acceptable response. Choice C lacks empathy and understanding of the situation. Choice D minimizes the seriousness of the behavior and fails to address the issue. B is the best option for promoting a safe and respectful environment for both the patient and staff.

Question 5 of 5

According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which nursing diagnosis has the lowest priority for a client admitted to the intensive care unit with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for body image disturbance. In Maslow's hierarchy, physiological needs like airway clearance take precedence over emotional or self-esteem needs like body image disturbance. Priority is given to addressing life-threatening issues first. Impaired urinary elimination could be related to the client's heart failure and should be addressed to prevent complications. Coping mechanisms are important for emotional well-being but are not as critical as physiological needs in this scenario.

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