ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first administration of chorambucil might this reaction occur?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia is a common adverse reaction to chlorambucil, a type of chemotherapy drug that can cause hair loss. Alopecia typically occurs around 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration of chlorambucil. This is because chemotherapy drugs affect rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Hair loss is a well-known side effect of many chemotherapy drugs, and it is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Incorrect choices: A: Immediately - Hair loss does not occur immediately after the first administration of chlorambucil. C: 1 week - Hair loss typically occurs later than 1 week after starting chemotherapy. D: 1 month - While hair loss can occur within a month, it is more likely to happen sooner, around 2 to 3 weeks after starting the medication.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the "Where is the pain located?" question corresponds to the "P" component in the PQRST assessment, which stands for Provocative/Palliative factors. This question helps identify the specific location of the pain and what triggers or alleviates it. The other choices are incorrect because: - B: "What causes the pain?" corresponds to the "Q" component (Quality of pain), focusing on the characteristics of the pain. - C: "Does it come and go?" corresponds to the "R" component (Region/Radiation of pain), focusing on the pattern and radiation of the pain. - D: "What does the pain feel like?" corresponds to the "S" component (Severity of pain), focusing on the intensity of the pain.
Question 3 of 9
Considering Mr. Franco’s conditions, which of the following is most important to include in preparing Franco’s bedside equipment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B: Footboard and splint: 1. Footboard helps prevent foot drop by maintaining proper alignment and preventing pressure ulcers. 2. Splint helps stabilize and support Franco's limbs to prevent contractures and maintain proper positioning. 3. Both items are essential for Franco's safety, comfort, and prevention of complications. 4. Hand bell and extra bed linen (Choice A) are not crucial for Franco's immediate care needs. 5. Sandbag and trochanter rolls (Choice C) are not directly relevant to Franco's specific conditions. 6. Suction machine and gloves (Choice D) are important for airway management but not the priority for bedside equipment in this case.
Question 4 of 9
. A female client experiences trauma to her urinary tract during an accident. Which of the ff factors should the nurse consider while assessing the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assessment and recognition of abnormal findings. This is crucial as trauma to the urinary tract can lead to various complications such as urinary retention, infection, or injury to surrounding structures. By assessing and recognizing abnormal findings, the nurse can promptly identify any issues and initiate appropriate interventions. Choice A (Assessment of sexual habits) may be important for assessing risk factors for urinary tract trauma, but it is not directly related to assessing the client's current condition post-accident. Choice C (Assessment of allergies to seafood) is irrelevant in this scenario as it does not impact the assessment of urinary tract trauma. Choice D (Assessment of insurance coverage) is not a priority when assessing a client's immediate health status post-accident.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse knows which of the following is true about immunity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Answer C: Antibodies are produced by the B-cells. B-cells are a type of lymphocyte that differentiate into plasma cells, which are responsible for producing antibodies in response to antigens. This process is a key component of the humoral immune response. Therefore, the statement that antibodies are produced by the B-cells is true. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Antibody-mediated defense occurs through the B-cell system, not the T-cell system. T-cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity. B: Cellular immunity is mediated by T-cells, not antibodies produced by B-cells. D: Lymphocytes increasing with an allergic response is not directly related to the production of antibodies by B-cells. Allergic responses involve a different mechanism.
Question 6 of 9
A brain abscess is a collection of pus within the substance of the brain and is caused by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a brain abscess can be caused by direct invasion of the brain, spread of infection by other organs, and spread of infection from nearby sites. Direct invasion occurs when bacteria enter the brain tissue directly, such as through trauma or surgery. Infections from other organs, like the lungs or heart, can spread through the bloodstream to the brain. Infections from nearby sites, such as the ears or sinuses, can also spread to the brain. Therefore, all of these mechanisms can lead to the formation of a brain abscess. Choices A, B, and C individually do not cover all the possible causes of a brain abscess, making D the correct choice.
Question 7 of 9
Mr. Boy, a 65-year old man, has been admitted wth severe flame burns resulting from smoking in bed. The nurse can expect his room environment to include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a semi-private room. For a burn patient like Mr. Boy, a semi-private room is preferred to provide a more controlled environment for infection prevention, wound care, and privacy. Strict isolation (A) is not necessary as his burns are not infectious. Liberal visiting (C) can increase the risk of infection and compromise his recovery. Sharing equipment (D) can lead to cross-contamination and is not recommended for burn patients. In summary, a semi-private room balances infection control and patient comfort for burn patients.
Question 8 of 9
Several hours after returning from surgery, the nurse tells the patient that she is ordered to be ambulated. The patient asks, “Why?” Which of the following complications would the nurse correctly explain can be prevented by early postoperative ambulation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pneumonia. Early postoperative ambulation helps prevent pneumonia by promoting lung expansion, increasing oxygenation, and preventing atelectasis. A: Increased peristalsis is unrelated to ambulation. B: Coughing is important for airway clearance but not directly related to ambulation. D: Wound healing is influenced by various factors, but ambulation primarily impacts respiratory function.
Question 9 of 9
A 72 y.o. man is admitted to a skilled care facility following a stroke. When the nursing assistant is bathing him, he makes a sexual remark and tries to touch her inappropriately. The assistant finishes the bath, then tells the LPN in charge, “I refuse to take care of that dirty old man!” Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it acknowledges the patient's behavior is likely due to the stroke affecting his inhibitions. Finding a male assistant respects both the patient's dignity and the nursing assistant's comfort. Choice A is inappropriate as physical violence is never an acceptable response. Choice C lacks empathy and understanding of the situation. Choice D minimizes the seriousness of the behavior and fails to address the issue. B is the best option for promoting a safe and respectful environment for both the patient and staff.