A client has completed the full course of antibiotics prescribed to treat otitis media. Which primary manifestation of the disorder will be relieved as evidence that treatment has been effective?

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Question 1 of 5

A client has completed the full course of antibiotics prescribed to treat otitis media. Which primary manifestation of the disorder will be relieved as evidence that treatment has been effective?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pain. Effective treatment of otitis media should result in the relief of pain, which is a primary manifestation of the disorder. Antibiotics target the infection causing the inflammation and pain in the ear. Impaired hearing (A) may persist even after the infection is treated, as inflammation can take time to resolve. Dizziness (B) may be a symptom of inner ear involvement but is not the primary manifestation of otitis media. Nausea and vomiting (D) are not typically associated with otitis media and would not be relieved by completing the course of antibiotics.

Question 2 of 5

A 1-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital with a temperature of 102°F. What is the rationale for a complete septic workup?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immature immune system. A 1-month-old infant has an underdeveloped immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. A temperature of 102°F suggests a potential serious infection like sepsis. A complete septic workup is necessary to identify the source of infection and initiate appropriate treatment promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the absence of sweat glands, inadequate red blood cells, and poor lung elasticity do not directly relate to the need for a septic workup in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

An adolescent client is brought to the emergency department (ED) with fatigue, weight loss, a dry cough, and night sweats. The family just recently immigrated to the United States. Based on this data, which potential risk should the nurse include when planning care for this client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pneumothorax. Given the symptoms of fatigue, weight loss, dry cough, and night sweats in an adolescent who recently immigrated, the nurse should consider tuberculosis (TB) as a potential risk. TB can lead to pneumothorax due to lung cavitation and can present with the symptoms described. Atelectasis, renal failure, and reduced peristalsis are less likely in this scenario and do not align with the client's presenting symptoms and recent immigration history.

Question 4 of 5

The most common type of upper urinary tract infection that results from bacteria ascending to the kidney from the lower respiratory tract is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: pyelonephritis. This is because pyelonephritis is a type of upper urinary tract infection that occurs when bacteria ascends from the lower urinary tract to the kidney, often through the ureters. Urethritis (choice A) is an infection of the urethra, not the kidney. Prostatitis (choice B) is an infection of the prostate gland, not the kidney. Cystitis (choice D) is a lower urinary tract infection involving the bladder, not the kidney. Therefore, pyelonephritis is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a previously healed tuberculosis lesion experiences lesion rupture that leads to active disease. Which type of tuberculosis does this client have?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The client had a previously healed lesion, indicating latent infection. 2. Rupture led to active disease, suggesting reactivation of latent infection. 3. Therefore, the client has reactivation tuberculosis. Summary: - A: Miliary TB is widespread dissemination, not related to a single lesion. - B: Extrapulmonary TB affects organs other than the lungs. - D: Cavitation TB involves formation of cavities in the lungs, not directly related to lesion rupture.

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