A client has been taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. When the home care nurse arrives for a weekly visit, the client reports having been using aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) daily for arthritic pain since hearing a commercial on television bolstering its benefits. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse, based on an understanding of the effect of combining Coumadin with aspirin?

Questions 44

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Cardiovascular System Questions and Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client has been taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. When the home care nurse arrives for a weekly visit, the client reports having been using aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) daily for arthritic pain since hearing a commercial on television bolstering its benefits. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse, based on an understanding of the effect of combining Coumadin with aspirin?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin and aspirin (B) both increase bleeding risk (anticoagulant + antiplatelet). Other options (A, C, D) are incorrect and unsafe.

Question 2 of 5

The Nurse understands that a pulmonary embolism is a most unlikely complication in the postoperative period following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a risk after surgeries with prolonged immobility or venous manipulation (e.g., prostatectomy, hysterectomy, vein ligation), but appendectomy typically involves less risk due to shorter duration and minimal venous disruption.

Question 3 of 5

Which clinical feature found on assessment should indicate to a nurse that a client has congestive heart failure?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Congestive heart failure (CHF) causes fluid backup, leading to liver tenderness (hepatomegaly from right heart failure) and peripheral edema (fluid retention). Pulmonary crackles indicate left heart failure, but liver tenderness is more specific to right-sided CHF.

Question 4 of 5

A patient comes to the emergency department (ED) and reports a swollen and painful leg but denies sustaining any injury. The physical examination reveals a tense calf muscle, decreased sensation to the foot and leg, and absent pedal pulses. The cardiac-vascular nurse asks the patient when the symptoms began because:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Acute limb ischemia (e.g., from thrombosis or embolism) can cause irreversible muscle/nerve damage within 4-6 hours due to anoxia, making symptom onset timing critical for intervention. A is incorrect (both are sudden), B is delayed, and D is unrelated.

Question 5 of 5

In an assessment for intermittent claudication, the cardiac-vascular nurse assesses for leg pain and cramping with exertion, then asks the patient:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Intermittent claudication (arterial insufficiency) is characterized by exertional leg pain relieved by rest, distinguishing it from venous pain (relieved by elevation, D). A and B assess other conditions, not claudication specifically.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions