A client has been taking a decongestant for allergic rhinitis. During a follow-up visit, which of the following suggests that the decongestant has been effective?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Men can develop breast cancer. This is accurate because although breast cancer is more common in women, men can also develop the disease due to the presence of breast tissue in their bodies. This is a crucial point to emphasize to raise awareness about breast cancer among men. Incorrect choices: A: Mammography is not the most reliable method for detecting breast cancer, as it may not detect all types of breast cancer. B: Breast cancer is not the leading killer of women of childbearing age, as there are other leading causes of death in this age group. C: Breast cancer does not always require a mastectomy; treatment options vary depending on the individual case. Summary: Choice D is correct as it highlights the important fact that men can also develop breast cancer, which is often overlooked. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect due to inaccuracies or oversimplifications of the facts related to breast cancer detection, statistics, and treatment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not give the antibiotic. This is because the patient has a history of being "very sick" after taking erythromycin in the past, indicating a potential allergic reaction or severe adverse effects. The nurse should not administer the antibiotic to prevent harm to the patient. Choice A is incorrect as it can lead to a repeat adverse reaction. Choice C, giving half the dose, still exposes the patient to potential harm. Choice D, discontinuing the antibiotic, is also incorrect as it implies the patient has already started the medication, which should not be the case given the history of adverse effects.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically between 12-20 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 18 falls within this range, indicating adequate respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because an oxygen saturation of 91% is below the normal range of 95-100%, suggesting potential respiratory insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as frank blood suction from the tube indicates a serious issue such as bleeding, not adequate respiratory condition. Choice D is also incorrect as the presence of a moderate amount of tracheobronchial secretions may indicate a respiratory infection or other respiratory issue, not necessarily adequate respiratory condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You may feel a burning sensation when the dye is injected." This is important to include in preprocedure teaching for carotid angiography because it prepares the patient for a common sensation they may experience during the procedure. Providing this information helps manage expectations and reduce anxiety. Choice A is incorrect because carotid angiography is typically done with the patient awake. Choice B is incorrect as carotid angiography usually takes around 30-60 minutes. Choice D is incorrect because there can be complications associated with carotid angiography, such as allergic reactions or damage to blood vessels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is associated with stages 1 and 2 hypertension. Smoking is a major risk factor for developing hypertension, especially stages 1 and 2. Nicotine in cigarettes can lead to vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and overall elevated blood pressure. This information is crucial for patients to understand the direct impact of smoking on their blood pressure levels. Choice B is incorrect because smoking does indeed affect BP regulation by causing vasoconstriction and elevated heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as smoking actually causes vasoconstriction rather than vasodilation. Choice D is incorrect because smoking does lead to sustained elevation of blood pressure, especially in the long term.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. In this scenario, the nurse identified the patient's desire to enhance urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, indicating a readiness for positive change. Health promotion diagnoses focus on improving well-being and enhancing quality of life. This diagnosis supports the patient's proactive approach to managing their condition. Incorrect choices: A: Risk - This diagnosis would be used if the patient was at risk for complications related to urinary elimination, not actively seeking to improve it. B: Problem focused - This type of diagnosis would be used if the patient was experiencing issues with urinary elimination that needed to be addressed. D: Collaborative problem - This diagnosis would involve identifying a problem that requires collaboration between healthcare professionals to resolve, which is not the case in this scenario.