ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has been taking a decongestant for allergic rhinitis. During a follow-up visit, which of the following suggests that the decongestant has been effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.
Question 2 of 9
The new nurse is caring for six patients in this shift. After completing their assessments, the nurse asks where to begin in developing care plans for these patients. Which statement is an appropriate suggestion by another nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Begin with the highest priority diagnoses, then select appropriate interventions." Rationale: 1. Start with the highest priority diagnoses: Prioritizing care based on the patients' most critical needs ensures their safety and well-being. 2. Identify appropriate interventions: Select interventions that directly address the priority diagnoses to promote effective care delivery. 3. Tailor interventions to individual needs: By focusing on high-priority diagnoses, the nurse can personalize care plans for each patient. 4. Ensure efficient use of resources: Addressing critical issues first optimizes time and resources for the most impactful outcomes. Summary: A: Incorrect. Performing interventions based on time needed may not address the most critical patient needs. B: Incorrect. While scientific rationale is important, it should come after identifying priority diagnoses. C: Incorrect. Setting goals and outcomes should follow the identification of high-priority diagnoses for effective care planning.
Question 3 of 9
An unconscious patient is brought to the emergency department. Which of the following assessments should be implemented first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client’s airway should be assessed first. This is because airway management is the top priority in any emergency situation to ensure the patient can breathe. Without a patent airway, the patient's oxygenation and ventilation will be compromised, leading to serious complications or death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the airway takes precedence over determining the reason for admission, reviewing medications, or assessing past medical history in an unconscious patient. These other assessments are important but not as critical as securing the airway to maintain the patient's breathing and oxygenation.
Question 4 of 9
A client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adrenal cortex. Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition where the adrenal cortex produces too much aldosterone hormone, leading to hypertension. The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, not aldosterone, making option B incorrect. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, not aldosterone, making option C incorrect. Option D is incorrect because the adrenal cortex is responsible for aldosterone secretion in primary hyperaldosteronism.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: 1. Asking about chief concerns helps to focus the interview on the patient's needs. 2. It demonstrates active listening and empathy. 3. Allows the nurse to prioritize issues and provide appropriate care. 4. Introductions are already done, and ending the interview abruptly or mentioning medication timing is not patient-centered.
Question 6 of 9
A client has been taking a decongestant for allergic rhinitis. During a follow-up visit, which of the following suggests that the decongestant has been effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. In this scenario, the nurse identified the patient's desire to enhance urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, indicating a readiness for positive change. Health promotion diagnoses focus on improving well-being and enhancing quality of life. This diagnosis supports the patient's proactive approach to managing their condition. Incorrect choices: A: Risk - This diagnosis would be used if the patient was at risk for complications related to urinary elimination, not actively seeking to improve it. B: Problem focused - This type of diagnosis would be used if the patient was experiencing issues with urinary elimination that needed to be addressed. D: Collaborative problem - This diagnosis would involve identifying a problem that requires collaboration between healthcare professionals to resolve, which is not the case in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is getting ready to discharge a patient who has a problem with physical mobility. What does the nurse need to do before discontinuing the patient’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because before discontinuing a patient's plan of care related to physical mobility, the nurse needs to evaluate whether the patient goals and outcomes have been met. This step ensures that the patient has achieved the desired level of physical mobility improvement and is ready to safely continue their care at home. A: Determining whether the patient has transportation to get home is important but not directly related to the patient's physical mobility goals and outcomes. C: Establishing a follow-up appointment is important but does not directly address the evaluation of the patient's physical mobility improvement. D: Ensuring that the patient's prescriptions are filled is crucial for medication management but does not specifically evaluate the patient's physical mobility progress.
Question 9 of 9
A female client recovers from a serious case of insect bites. What skin related advice must the nurse give to the client and all her family members to prevent the recurrence of the ailment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply insect repellent to clothing and exposed skin. This advice helps prevent insect bites, reducing the risk of recurrence. Insect repellent creates a barrier against insects, hence minimizing the chances of getting bitten. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the prevention of insect bites. Choice A is vague and does not provide a specific preventive measure. Choice C is incorrect as thick woollen clothing may not necessarily prevent insect bites. Choice D, sunscreen lotion, protects against UV rays, not insect bites.