A client has been prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Avoid activities that may cause injury. This instruction is crucial for a client prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation because anticoagulants work to prevent blood clot formation, making the individual more susceptible to bleeding. Engaging in activities that may cause injury can lead to serious bleeding complications due to the anticoagulant's effect on blood clotting. Option A) Take the medication with food to prevent nausea is incorrect because whether a medication should be taken with food or not is specific to each medication and not a general rule. In the case of anticoagulants, taking them with food may not impact nausea. Option C) Monitor your heart rate daily before taking the medication is incorrect because anticoagulants are not typically dosed based on heart rate. Instead, they are prescribed to prevent blood clot formation in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Option D) Avoid alcohol while taking this medication is incorrect because while alcohol can interact with certain medications, particularly those affecting the liver, it is not a primary concern with anticoagulants. The main focus with anticoagulants is to prevent bleeding complications by avoiding activities that may cause injury. In an educational context, understanding the specific instructions for clients taking anticoagulants is vital for nurses to ensure patient safety and prevent adverse events. Nurses play a key role in patient education, emphasizing the importance of following instructions to optimize treatment outcomes and minimize risks associated with anticoagulant therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes while on Morphine IV to promptly detect respiratory depression, a critical adverse effect associated with this medication. Regular monitoring allows for early intervention and prevents potential respiratory complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Loop diuretics. Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, can lead to hypokalemia, which in turn increases the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity is potentiated by low potassium levels, as potassium competes with Digoxin at the cellular level. When potassium is low, Digoxin can bind more tightly to its target receptors, leading to toxicity. Spironolactone (option A) is a potassium-sparing diuretic and can actually help prevent hypokalemia, reducing the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Calcium channel blockers (option B) and ACE inhibitors (option D) do not directly interact with Digoxin in a way that increases the risk of toxicity. In an educational context, understanding the potential drug interactions and adverse effects of medications is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective patient care. This knowledge helps in assessing the risks and benefits of drug therapy, making informed clinical decisions, and providing appropriate patient education to prevent complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring the client's blood glucose level is essential when taking Glipizide, as it is a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with Diabetes Mellitus. By monitoring the blood glucose level, the nurse can assess the effectiveness of the medication in managing the client's condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a client undergoes radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism, they can emit radiation for a short time. To prevent radiation exposure to others, especially pregnant women, infants, and small children, clients should avoid close contact for about 1 week following therapy. This precaution is essential to protect vulnerable individuals from potential harm.