A client has been prescribed a Beta Blocker for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

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Question 1 of 5

A client has been prescribed a Beta Blocker for hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common adverse effect of Beta Blockers due to their mechanism of action in slowing down the heart rate. Clients taking Beta Blockers should be monitored for signs of bradycardia, such as a slow heart rate, dizziness, or fainting. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial to prevent potential complications and ensure client safety.

Question 2 of 5

A client is receiving Enoxaparin for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is option C: administer the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin that is typically administered subcutaneously, as it is better absorbed and has a more predictable effect when given in this manner. Administering Enoxaparin intramuscularly (option B) can lead to increased risk of bleeding due to inadvertent puncture of blood vessels or injury to underlying structures. Administering it into the deltoid muscle (option D) is also not recommended as this route is typically reserved for vaccines or certain medications with specific requirements for administration. Massaging the injection site after administration (option A) is contraindicated with anticoagulants like Enoxaparin as it can increase the risk of bleeding and bruising at the injection site. Educationally, it is crucial for nurses to understand the appropriate routes of administration for medications to ensure their efficacy and safety for the patient. This knowledge helps prevent medication errors and adverse effects, ultimately promoting optimal patient outcomes.

Question 3 of 5

A client has been prescribed Nitroglycerin patches for angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology education, it is crucial for nurses to understand the rationale behind specific medication administration instructions. In this case, the correct answer is B) Remove the patch for 12 hours each day. The rationale behind this instruction is that Nitroglycerin patches need to be removed for a 12-hour nitrate-free interval to prevent tolerance from developing. Tolerance can occur when the body adapts to the continuous presence of the medication, reducing its effectiveness over time. By having a nitrate-free interval, the body's sensitivity to the medication is maintained, ensuring its efficacy when needed to relieve angina. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: A) Apply the patch to a different site each time: While it is important to rotate application sites to reduce skin irritation, this is not the most critical instruction for Nitroglycerin patches. C) Apply the patch at the same time every day: While consistency in timing is important for some medications, the key factor for Nitroglycerin patches is the nitrate-free interval. D) Cut the patch in half if your blood pressure is well controlled: Altering the dosage form of a medication without healthcare provider approval can lead to improper dosing and potential adverse effects. By understanding the rationale behind the correct answer and the implications of the incorrect options, nurses can ensure safe and effective medication administration for their patients with angina.

Question 4 of 5

A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications.

Question 5 of 5

A client has a new prescription for Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) INR of 4.0. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting clotting factors in the blood. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) measures the effectiveness of warfarin in thinning the blood. An INR of 4.0 indicates that the blood is too thin, putting the client at risk of bleeding complications, including hemorrhage. This finding is crucial to report immediately to the provider to prevent potential harm to the client. Option B) Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's safety in relation to the warfarin prescription. Option C) Sodium level of 140 mEq/L is also within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not directly impact the client's safety in the context of taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Option D) Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range (0.6-1.2 mg/dL) and does not specifically indicate a concern related to the warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of monitoring and understanding the specific laboratory values that are critical for clients on anticoagulant therapy like warfarin. It emphasizes the need for nurses to be vigilant in recognizing abnormal values that can impact the client's safety and prompt reporting to the healthcare provider for appropriate intervention.

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