ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which is an appropriate short-term goal for the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Setting a goal for the client to report a decrease in depressive symptoms is appropriate as it is specific, measurable, and achievable in the short term. Monitoring changes in depressive symptoms provides valuable feedback on the effectiveness of the treatment plan. While establishing a sleep routine, improving social interactions, and setting realistic goals for the future are important aspects of recovery, they are more suitable as intermediate or long-term goals. In the context of short-term goals, focusing on symptom reduction can provide immediate feedback on the client's progress and help adjust the treatment plan accordingly.
Question 2 of 9
During a community education session on mental health, which statement about stigma and mental illness is correct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Stigma can prevent individuals from seeking treatment.' Stigma surrounding mental illness can create barriers for individuals seeking treatment. It can lead to feelings of shame, fear of judgment, and discrimination, which may deter individuals from accessing the necessary support and care they need. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Stigma does have a significant impact on treatment outcomes by discouraging individuals from seeking help, it is not limited to developing countries but is a global issue, and unfortunately, stigma related to mental illness is still prevalent worldwide, although efforts are being made to reduce it.
Question 3 of 9
A client states, 'I am the only one who can hear voices.' Which is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to encourage the client to talk about their experiences with hearing voices. By asking the client to share more details about the voices, the nurse can gain insight into the nature of the auditory hallucinations and better understand the client's condition. This open-ended question allows the client to express themselves freely and helps build rapport and trust between the client and the nurse. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's statement or encourage further elaboration, making them less effective responses in this context.
Question 4 of 9
When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.
Question 5 of 9
A client is prescribed diazepam (Valium) for anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients should avoid alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the sedative effects of diazepam, leading to excessive drowsiness or respiratory depression. Choice B is correct as it reflects the need to avoid alcohol. Choice C is incorrect because diazepam is usually taken regularly, not just when feeling anxious. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping diazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be done gradually under medical supervision.
Question 6 of 9
Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.
Question 7 of 9
A client with bipolar disorder is in the manic phase. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals may engage in impulsive behaviors that can put them at risk of harm. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli can help reduce the risk of injury by minimizing triggers for impulsive actions. This intervention promotes a safe and controlled setting for the client, which is crucial in managing the symptoms of mania. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice B) may increase stimuli and potentially exacerbate manic symptoms. Monitoring for signs of exhaustion (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the safety concerns related to impulsive behaviors during mania. Encouraging the client to rest and sleep as needed (Choice D) may be challenging during the manic phase when individuals typically experience decreased need for sleep.
Question 8 of 9
A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with bipolar disorder prescribed lithium is to maintain consistent sodium intake. Fluctuations in sodium levels can impact lithium levels, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to advise the client to keep their sodium intake consistent to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the lithium therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in potassium is not directly related to lithium therapy. Increasing intake of caffeinated beverages can interfere with the action of lithium. Following a low-protein diet is not a standard recommendation for clients prescribed lithium.
Question 9 of 9
A client diagnosed with panic disorder is receiving discharge teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Avoiding caffeine and other stimulants is crucial for clients with panic disorder as these substances can exacerbate anxiety symptoms. Caffeine can trigger or worsen anxiety, leading to increased heart rate and restlessness. By eliminating stimulants, the client can better manage their anxiety levels and reduce the risk of panic attacks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking medication only when feeling anxious may lead to inconsistent treatment, using relaxation techniques alone may not be sufficient for managing panic disorder, and avoiding exercise can actually be counterproductive as regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and stress levels.