ATI RN
Mental Health ATI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has been diagnosed with major depression. The client reports that he often wakes up during the night and has trouble returning to sleep. The nurse interprets this finding as suggesting which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Middle insomnia. This is because the client waking up during the night and having trouble returning to sleep is characteristic of middle insomnia, which refers to difficulty maintaining sleep in the middle of the night. Initial insomnia (A) is difficulty falling asleep at the beginning of the night. Terminal insomnia (B) is early morning awakening with an inability to return to sleep. Hypersomnia (C) is excessive daytime sleepiness, which is not indicative of the client's symptoms. Therefore, the correct interpretation in this scenario is middle insomnia.
Question 2 of 5
A client with premature ejaculation is prescribed sertraline as part of the treatment plan. The nurse explains the medication to the client, informing him that the effectiveness of the drug will most likely be evident in approximately which time frame?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1 to 2 weeks. Sertraline is an antidepressant that can help with premature ejaculation. It typically takes 1 to 2 weeks for the medication to start showing effectiveness due to the need for the drug to reach a therapeutic level in the body. This time frame allows the client's body to adjust to the medication and for the serotonin levels to stabilize, resulting in improved control over ejaculation. Choices A (5 to 7 days), C (3 to 4 weeks), and D (6 to 8 weeks) are incorrect as they do not align with the typical onset of action for sertraline. A shorter time frame like 5 to 7 days is usually insufficient for the drug to reach therapeutic levels, while longer time frames like 3 to 4 weeks or 6 to 8 weeks exceed the typical onset of action for this medication.
Question 3 of 5
A client presents with psychotic symptoms: hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech and behavior. They do not have medical comorbidities and do not use any substances. The signs have been present for five months. What diagnosis is suspected?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct diagnosis suspected in this case is C: schizophreniform disorder. This is because the client is experiencing psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and behavior for a period of five months. Schizophreniform disorder is characterized by similar symptoms to schizophrenia but with a duration of at least one month but less than six months. Delusional disorder (A) involves persistent delusions without other psychotic symptoms. Brief psychotic disorder (B) lasts less than one month. Schizophrenia (D) requires symptoms to be present for at least six months.
Question 4 of 5
Group dynamics can vary widely and at times members are capable of disrupting the group process. Which of the following participant traits may indicate a need for additional support for a new nurse facilitator? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a quietly tearful participant expressing suicidal thoughts indicates a serious mental health concern that requires immediate attention and support. This participant may be in distress and at risk of harm, making it crucial for the new nurse facilitator to provide appropriate resources and assistance. Choice A is incorrect because paranoid delusions may not necessarily impact the group dynamics unless they lead to disruptive behavior. Choice C is incorrect as anger alone does not indicate a need for additional support unless it escalates to disruptive behavior. Choice D is also incorrect as being a calm but ineffective communicator may not necessarily indicate a need for additional support unless it hinders the group process.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reading an article about a young girl who developed gastrointestinal symptoms from a hairball because of a ritual that she engaged in. The girl would pull out hair over several hours to relieve tension and anxiety and then eat the hair. The nurse most likely is reading an article about which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trichotillomania. Trichotillomania is a disorder characterized by the compulsive urge to pull out one's hair, leading to hair loss. In this case, the young girl's behavior of pulling out hair to relieve tension and anxiety aligns with the symptoms of trichotillomania. Kleptomania (A) is the urge to steal items, not related to hair pulling. Pyromania (C) is the urge to set fires, not related to hair pulling. Intermittent explosive disorder (D) involves episodes of impulsive aggression, not related to hair pulling.