ATI RN
Introduction to Professional Nursing Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has an order of small volume enema after an oral laxative fails to produce sufficient stool return. The nurse informs the client of the procedure. The client asks the nurse what small volume enema is all about. The nurse offered an APPROPRIATE answer when she states that small volume enema is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Used to clean the sigmoid and rectum. Small volume enema is specifically designed to target the lower part of the colon, which includes the sigmoid colon and rectum. This type of enema is not meant to cleanse the entire colon like a large volume enema would. It is focused on providing relief and stimulation to the lower bowel to help with stool return. Explanation of incorrect choices: A: A laxative solution - Small volume enema is not just a laxative solution, it is a specific type of enema with a targeted purpose. B: Given to cleanse the colon - Small volume enema is not intended to cleanse the entire colon but rather the lower part. D: A commercially prepared enema - While small volume enemas can be commercially prepared, this choice does not address the specific purpose of the enema, which is to clean the sigmoid and rectum.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing the client who has edema. The skin remains indented or pitted at 8mm. The nurse describes the degree of edema as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (4+). This degree of edema indicates severe pitting edema where the skin remains indented or pitted at 8mm. This level of indentation signifies a significant accumulation of fluid in the tissues. Choices A (1+), B (2+), and C (3+) represent varying degrees of pitting edema with shallower indentations ranging from 2mm to 6mm, which are considered mild to moderate levels of edema. Therefore, the correct assessment of 4+ reflects the severity of the client's condition based on the depth of indentation and the amount of accumulated fluid in the tissues.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse measures a client's temperature at 102° F. What is the equivalent Centigrade temperature?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (38.9° C) because to convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, you subtract 32 from the Fahrenheit temperature and then multiply by 5/9. So, 102°F - 32 = 70, and 70 x 5/9 = 38.9°C. Choice A (39°C) is close but not exact. Choice B (47°C) and D (40.1°C) are significantly off and do not follow the correct conversion formula.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse must know that the most accurate oxygen delivery system available is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The venturi mask. This is the most accurate oxygen delivery system because it allows for precise oxygen concentration adjustment. The venturi mask delivers a specific oxygen concentration by mixing oxygen with room air through a system of valves and ports. This ensures a consistent and accurate oxygen delivery to the patient. Nasal cannula (B) delivers low to medium oxygen concentrations and is less accurate. Partial non-rebreather mask (C) and simple face mask (D) deliver higher oxygen concentrations but are not as precise as the venturi mask.
Question 5 of 5
As the nurse is speaking with a group of teens which of these side effects of chemotherapy for cancer would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in during the discussion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hair loss. Teens are often very concerned about their appearance, so hair loss would likely be the side effect of chemotherapy that they are most interested in. The sudden change in physical appearance can have a significant impact on their self-esteem and body image. Additionally, hair loss is a visible side effect that can make the cancer treatment more real and tangible for them. Mouth sores (A), fatigue (B), and diarrhea (C) are also common side effects of chemotherapy, but they may not be as visually impactful or emotionally distressing for teenagers as hair loss.