ATI RN
Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read her chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because dysplasia refers to the alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells. Dysplasia is an abnormal growth or development of cells that can be a precursor to cancer. It is characterized by changes in cell size, shape, and organization, which can be seen in Papanicolaou tests. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an undifferentiated tumor, not dysplasia. Choice B is incorrect as it describes hyperplasia, not dysplasia. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to metaplasia, not dysplasia. In summary, dysplasia is specifically about the abnormal changes in the appearance and organization of differentiated cells, making choice D the correct definition.
Question 2 of 5
A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V finding on a Pap test indicates severe dysplasia or carcinoma in situ, which requires further evaluation through a biopsy to confirm the presence of abnormal cells. This finding is not normal and necessitates immediate action for diagnosis and potential treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the urgency and seriousness of a class V finding, which mandates prompt follow-up to rule out or confirm the presence of precancerous or cancerous cells.
Question 3 of 5
A client receives a sealed radiation implant to treat cervical cancer. When caring for this client, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client remains radioactive for a period of time after the implant removal, typically around 10 days. During this time, the nurse should take precautions to limit exposure to radiation. Choice A is incorrect because bodily fluids are not highly radioactive, and proper disposal procedures should be followed. Choice C is incorrect as soiled linens should be handled appropriately to prevent contamination. Choice D is incorrect as bed rest may not be necessary, and mobility should be encouraged within safety guidelines.
Question 4 of 5
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine. Morphine is a central nervous system depressant that can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation and potentially respiratory failure. This is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate intervention. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine is not typically associated with morphine use. B: An irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within a normal range and not a common adverse effect of morphine. C: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its action on the central nervous system, not necessarily indicating an adverse effect.
Question 5 of 5
A client has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first administration of chorambucil might this reaction occur?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia (hair loss) is a common adverse reaction of chlorambucil, typically occurring 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration. This is due to the drug's effect on rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Immediate onset (Choice A) is unlikely as it takes time for the drug to affect hair growth. One week (Choice C) is too soon for alopecia to manifest. One month (Choice D) is too long as alopecia usually occurs earlier. Therefore, the correct window for alopecia onset after chlorambucil administration is 2 to 3 weeks.