A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

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ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.

Question 2 of 5

If a nurse administers an incorrect dose of medication, which fact related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the time the medication was given. This is essential for understanding the sequence of events surrounding the medication error. While documenting the client's response to the medication (Choice B) is important for assessing any effects, the immediate concern should be to establish a clear timeline by documenting the time of administration. Recording the dose administered (Choice C) is also important, but in the context of understanding the incident, the time factor takes precedence. The reason for the error (Choice D) should be included in the incident report but may not be the first priority when documenting in the client's medical record.

Question 3 of 5

How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.

Question 4 of 5

What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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