ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has a serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl. During the physical examination, the nurse expects to assess:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. A serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl indicates hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular excitability from low calcium levels. Hegar's sign (B) is associated with pregnancy, Homan's sign (C) is a clinical test for deep vein thrombosis, and Goodell's sign (D) is a softening of the cervix during pregnancy. These signs are not relevant to a client with hypocalcemia.
Question 2 of 9
A client has had heavy menstrual bleeding for 6 months. Her gynecologist diagnoses microcytic hypochromic anemia and prescribes ferrous sulfate (Feosol), 300mg PO daily. Before initiating iron therapy, the nurse reviews the client’s medical history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of ferrous sulfate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ulcerative colitis. Iron therapy can exacerbate gastrointestinal issues, including ulcerative colitis due to its potential to cause irritation and inflammation in the digestive tract. This can lead to worsening symptoms and complications for the client. A: Pregnancy is not a contraindication for iron therapy; in fact, it is commonly prescribed during pregnancy to prevent or treat anemia. C: Asthma is not a contraindication for iron therapy as it does not directly interact with asthma or its treatment. D: Severely impaired liver function is not a direct contraindication for iron therapy, although caution may be needed in such cases due to iron metabolism being affected by liver function.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. What is the best way to protect this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use the smallest needle possible for injections. This is important for a client with thrombocytopenia because they have a low platelet count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Using a small needle minimizes the risk of causing bleeding or bruising during injections. Limiting family visits (choice A) is not directly related to protecting the client from bleeding. Encouraging wheelchair use (choice B) is not specifically relevant to protecting the client with thrombocytopenia. Maintaining accurate fluid intake and output records (choice D) is important but not directly related to preventing bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia.
Question 4 of 9
To treat cervical cancer, a client has had an applicator of radioactive material placed in the vagina. Which observation by the nurse indicates a radiation hazard?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because maintaining the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle can cause the radioactive material to shift within the client's body, increasing the risk of radiation exposure. This position should be avoided to prevent displacement of the applicator. A: Strict bed rest is appropriate to minimize movement and dislodgement of the applicator, ensuring proper treatment delivery. C: Providing a bed bath does not pose a radiation hazard as long as proper precautions are taken. D: Checking the applicator's position every 4 hours is essential for monitoring and ensuring it remains in place to deliver the intended treatment.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fine needle aspiration. This is because fine needle aspiration involves extracting cells from the lump in the breast for examination under a microscope to determine if they are cancerous. This procedure provides a definitive diagnosis of breast cancer. Breast self-examination (A) is a screening tool for detecting lumps but does not confirm a diagnosis. Mammography (C) is used for screening and detecting abnormalities but requires further testing for confirmation. Chest x-ray (D) is not useful for diagnosing breast cancer.
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Amy teaches a group of nursing students about the factors that cuses biliary cirrhosis. Which factor is associated with the condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: chronic biliary inflammation or obstruction. Biliary cirrhosis is a condition characterized by scarring of the liver due to long-term damage to the bile ducts. Chronic biliary inflammation or obstruction can lead to the build-up of bile in the liver, causing damage over time. Acute viral hepatitis (choice A) typically does not directly cause biliary cirrhosis. Alcohol hepatotoxicity (choice B) is more commonly associated with alcoholic liver disease rather than biliary cirrhosis. Hepatic failure with prolonged venous hepatic congestion (choice D) may lead to liver cirrhosis, but it is not specific to biliary cirrhosis.
Question 7 of 9
A classic full blown AIDS case is identified by clinical manifestations such as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Classic full-blown AIDS presents with tumors and opportunistic infections due to severe immune system suppression. Step 2: These manifestations occur when CD4 cell count drops significantly, leading to inability to fight infections. Step 3: Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (Choice A) can be seen in early HIV infection, not necessarily in full-blown AIDS. Step 4: Sudden weight loss, fever, and malaise (Choice B) are non-specific symptoms seen in various conditions, not specific to AIDS. Step 5: Fever, weight loss, night sweats, and diarrhea (Choice D) are common symptoms but lack the specificity of tumors and opportunistic infections seen in classic full-blown AIDS.
Question 8 of 9
A patient who has just had a TURP asks his nurse to explain why he has to have the bladder irrigation because it seems to increase his pain. Which of the following explanations by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should explain that bladder irrigation is necessary to prevent blood clots from occluding the catheter after a TURP procedure. Step 2: Without irrigation, blood clots could block the catheter, leading to urinary retention and potential complications. Step 3: This explanation addresses the patient's concern about increased pain and highlights the importance of the irrigation in maintaining proper urine flow. Step 4: Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of irrigation is not to stop bleeding but to prevent clot formation. Choice B is incorrect because the irrigation is not for administering antibiotics. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the issue of clot formation.
Question 9 of 9
An adult suffered 2nd and third degree burns over 20% of hid body 2 days ago. What is the best way to assess the client’s fluid balance?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain strict records of intake and output. This is the best way to assess fluid balance in a burn patient because it provides quantitative data on fluid intake and output, helping to monitor for fluid imbalance. Monitoring skin turgor (B) is unreliable in burn patients due to skin damage. Weighing the client daily (C) may not accurately reflect fluid balance changes. Checking for edema (D) is not specific to assessing fluid balance in burn patients. Maintaining intake and output records allows for precise monitoring and early detection of fluid shifts, making it the most appropriate choice.