ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has a serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl. During the physical examination, the nurse expects to assess:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. A serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl indicates hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular excitability from low calcium levels. Hegar's sign (B) is associated with pregnancy, Homan's sign (C) is a clinical test for deep vein thrombosis, and Goodell's sign (D) is a softening of the cervix during pregnancy. These signs are not relevant to a client with hypocalcemia.
Question 2 of 9
A baby is born temporarily immune to the diseases to which the mother is immune. The nurse understands that this is an example of which of the following types of immunity?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naturally acquired passive immunity. This type of immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from mother to baby through the placenta or breast milk, providing temporary protection. The baby does not produce its antibodies, hence it is passive. Choice B, naturally acquired active immunity, involves the body producing its antibodies after exposure to a pathogen. Choice C, artificially acquired passive immunity, involves receiving preformed antibodies from an external source. Choice D, artificially acquired active immunity, involves the body producing antibodies in response to vaccination.
Question 3 of 9
A client with lung cancer develops Homer’s when the tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. When assessing for signs and symptoms of this syndrome, the nurse should note:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. This is indicative of Horner's syndrome, which occurs due to the disruption of sympathetic nerve supply. Miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping eyelid), and anhidrosis (lack of sweating) are classic signs of Horner's syndrome. These symptoms occur when the tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. Summary of other choices: B: Chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever are more commonly associated with lung cancer but not specific to Horner's syndrome. C: Arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of arm and hand muscles are not typical signs of Horner's syndrome. D: Hoarseness and dysphagia are more common symptoms of compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve, not Horner's syndrome.
Question 4 of 9
If a client with increased pressure (ICP) demonstrates decorticate posturing, the nurse will observe:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because decorticate posturing is characterized by flexion of both upper and lower extremities. This occurs due to damage to the cerebral hemispheres, resulting in abnormal muscle contractions. Choice B describes decerebrate posturing, which is associated with extension of elbows and knees. Choice C is incorrect as it describes abnormal posturing seen in other conditions. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a different type of abnormal posturing.
Question 5 of 9
A client has had heavy menstrual bleeding for 6 months. Her gynecologist diagnoses microcytic hypochromic anemia and prescribes ferrous sulfate (Feosol), 300mg PO daily. Before initiating iron therapy, the nurse reviews the client’s medical history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of ferrous sulfate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ulcerative colitis. Iron therapy can exacerbate gastrointestinal issues, including ulcerative colitis due to its potential to cause irritation and inflammation in the digestive tract. This can lead to worsening symptoms and complications for the client. A: Pregnancy is not a contraindication for iron therapy; in fact, it is commonly prescribed during pregnancy to prevent or treat anemia. C: Asthma is not a contraindication for iron therapy as it does not directly interact with asthma or its treatment. D: Severely impaired liver function is not a direct contraindication for iron therapy, although caution may be needed in such cases due to iron metabolism being affected by liver function.
Question 6 of 9
A client with suspected lung cancer is scheduled for thoracentesis as part of the diagnostic workup. The nurse reviews the client’s history for conditions that might contraindicate this procedure. Which condition is a contraindication for thoracentesis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A bleeding disorder. Thoracentesis involves inserting a needle into the pleural space to remove fluid. A bleeding disorder increases the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. This can lead to complications such as hematoma formation, pneumothorax, or even life-threatening bleeding. It is crucial to assess and address bleeding disorders before performing thoracentesis to ensure the safety of the client. A: A seizure disorder is not a contraindication for thoracentesis unless uncontrolled seizures could compromise the safety of the procedure. B: Anemia alone is not a contraindication for thoracentesis, as it does not directly increase the risk of complications during the procedure. C: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a contraindication for thoracentesis unless it is severe and compromises the client's ability to tolerate the procedure.
Question 7 of 9
Barbiturate anticonvulsants are effective in treating all of these seizure types, except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: absence seizures. Barbiturate anticonvulsants are not effective in treating absence seizures because they can worsen this type of seizure by suppressing brain activity. Barbiturates are typically used to treat tonic-clonic seizures and partial seizures, but not absence seizures. Febrile seizures are typically managed without barbiturate anticonvulsants. In summary, barbiturate anticonvulsants are effective in treating partial seizures and tonic-clonic seizures, but not absence seizures or febrile seizures due to their mechanisms of action and potential side effects.
Question 8 of 9
After a 3- month trail of dietary therapy, a client with type2 diabetes mellitus still has blood glucose levels above 180 mg/dl. The physician adds glyburide (DiaBeta), 2.5 mg P.O. daily, to the treatment regimen. The nurse should instruct the client to take glyburide:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes before breakfast. Glyburide is a sulfonylurea medication that stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, enhancing glucose uptake. Taking it before breakfast ensures peak insulin levels coincide with the postprandial glucose spike, aiding in glucose control throughout the day. Option B is incorrect as taking it after dinner may lead to hypoglycemia during sleep. Option C is incorrect as midmorning is not an optimal time for a sulfonylurea dose. Option D is incorrect as taking it at bedtime may also increase the risk of hypoglycemia overnight.
Question 9 of 9
An adult had a total thyroidectomy. Which statement by the client demonstrates to the nurse an adequate understanding of long term care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because after a total thyroidectomy, the client will no longer produce thyroid hormones, necessitating lifelong replacement therapy. This statement shows an understanding of the need for ongoing medication to maintain thyroid function. Choice B is incorrect as the client had a total thyroidectomy, so there is no risk of hyperthyroidism recurrence. Choice C is incorrect as the client will need ongoing care and monitoring for thyroid function. Choice D is incorrect as increasing caloric intake is not a necessary long-term care measure after a thyroidectomy.