ATI RN
Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V finding on a Pap test indicates severe dysplasia or carcinoma in situ, which requires further evaluation through a biopsy to confirm the presence of abnormal cells. This finding is not normal and necessitates immediate action for diagnosis and potential treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the urgency and seriousness of a class V finding, which mandates prompt follow-up to rule out or confirm the presence of precancerous or cancerous cells.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is not a criterion for a valid informed consent that a nurse should identify?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: with coercion. Informed consent must be freely given without any form of coercion to ensure the individual's autonomy and decision-making capacity. Coercion can lead to involuntary consent, undermining the principle of respect for autonomy. Choices A, C, and D are all criteria for valid informed consent. Choice A ensures the individual is voluntarily agreeing without any external pressure. Choice C ensures the individual understands the procedures involved, promoting transparency. Choice D ensures the individual is aware of alternative options, allowing for an informed decision-making process.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s database for significant changes and discovers that the patient has not voided in over 8 hours. The patient’s kidney function lab results are abnormal, and the patient’s oral intake has significantly decreased since previous shifts. Which step of the nursing process should the nurse proceed to after this review?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diagnosis. After reviewing the patient's database and identifying concerning findings such as abnormal kidney function, lack of voiding, and decreased oral intake, the nurse needs to move to the diagnosis step of the nursing process. This involves analyzing the data collected to identify the patient's health problems and risks. In this case, the nurse needs to determine potential underlying issues related to the kidney function abnormalities and lack of voiding, and formulate a nursing diagnosis based on the findings. Summary of other choices: B: Planning comes after diagnosis and involves setting goals and creating a plan of care. C: Implementation follows planning and involves carrying out the plan of care. D: Evaluation is the final step of the nursing process where the nurse assesses the effectiveness of the interventions implemented.
Question 4 of 9
An adult has a Hickman type central venous catheter and needs to have blood drawn from it. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because flushing the central venous catheter with a heparinized solution before blood withdrawal is essential to maintain catheter patency and prevent clot formation. This step ensures the catheter is clear of any blockages, allowing for accurate blood sampling. Choice A is incorrect because assembling supplies should come after preparing the catheter. Choice B is incorrect as discarding blood before flushing the catheter may lead to inaccurate test results. Choice D is incorrect as replacing the catheter cap without flushing may lead to clot formation and catheter malfunction.
Question 5 of 9
What is the mineral necessary for chemical clotting?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium. Calcium is necessary for the chemical clotting process because it plays a crucial role in the activation of various clotting factors, leading to the formation of a blood clot. Without sufficient calcium, the clotting cascade would not be able to proceed effectively. Iron (choice A) is essential for red blood cell production, not clotting. Potassium (choice B) and Sodium (choice C) are important for various physiological functions but are not directly involved in the clotting process.
Question 6 of 9
The physician orders propranolol (Inderal) for a client's angina. The effect of this drug is to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Block beta stimulation in the heart. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the beta receptors in the heart, which reduces the heart's workload and oxygen demand, making it an effective treatment for angina. By blocking beta stimulation, propranolol helps to decrease heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial contractility. This ultimately improves oxygen supply to the heart muscle. Explanation for other choices: A: Act as a vasoconstrictor - Propranolol does not act as a vasoconstrictor; it actually can cause vasodilation in some cases. C: Act as a vasodilator - Propranolol is not primarily a vasodilator; its main action is to block beta stimulation in the heart. D: Increase the heart rate - Propranolol actually decreases heart rate by blocking beta receptors in the heart.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse has taught a patient with thrombocytopenia how to prevent bleeding. Which of the ff. is the best evidence that the teaching has been effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because using an electric razor instead of a safety razor demonstrates understanding of the risk of injury associated with thrombocytopenia. This action shows practical application of the teaching to prevent bleeding. Choice A only indicates awareness but not necessarily action. Choice B shows knowledge but not necessarily application. Choice D is related to general healthcare knowledge but not directly linked to bleeding prevention in thrombocytopenia.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has allergic rhinitis. In planning care for the patient, the nurse understands that if the patient does not remain compliant with the treatment regimen, the patient is at risk for developing which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sinusitis. Allergic rhinitis causes inflammation in the nasal passages, leading to congestion and blockage of the sinuses. If the patient does not comply with the treatment regimen, the inflammation can worsen, increasing the risk of developing sinusitis, which is an infection or inflammation of the sinuses. Sinusitis can result in severe pain, pressure, and potentially lead to complications. Summary of other choices: B: Lymphadenopathy - Enlargement of lymph nodes, not directly related to non-compliance with treatment for allergic rhinitis. C: Anaphylaxis - Life-threatening allergic reaction, not a typical consequence of non-compliance with treatment for allergic rhinitis. D: Angioedema - Swelling of deeper layers of skin, usually associated with allergies but not a common outcome of non-compliance with treatment for allergic rhinitis.
Question 9 of 9
Of the following types of nursing diagnoses, which one is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actual nursing diagnosis. An actual nursing diagnosis is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics, such as signs and symptoms exhibited by the patient. This helps in identifying the specific health issues that the patient is currently experiencing. In contrast, a risk nursing diagnosis is focused on potential health problems that the patient may develop in the future. Possible nursing diagnosis involves uncertain or unclear health issues that require further assessment. Wellness diagnosis is aimed at enhancing health and promoting well-being, rather than addressing existing health problems. Therefore, the presence of major defining characteristics is crucial in confirming an actual nursing diagnosis.