A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?

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Question 1 of 9

A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V finding on a Pap test indicates severe dysplasia or carcinoma in situ, which requires further evaluation through a biopsy to confirm the presence of abnormal cells. This finding is not normal and necessitates immediate action for diagnosis and potential treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the urgency and seriousness of a class V finding, which mandates prompt follow-up to rule out or confirm the presence of precancerous or cancerous cells.

Question 2 of 9

A patient visits her nurse practitioner (NP) after she has a cold for a week and is now experiencing a severe headache and fever. Her NP diagnoses a sinus infection. Which of the following additional symptoms is the patient likely to exhibit?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facial tenderness. Sinus infections commonly present with facial tenderness due to the inflammation and pressure within the sinuses. This symptom is often accompanied by pain or pressure around the eyes, cheeks, and forehead. Photophobia (B) is more commonly associated with conditions like migraines or meningitis. Chest pain (C) is not a typical symptom of a sinus infection. Ear drainage (D) is more indicative of an ear infection rather than a sinus infection.

Question 3 of 9

As the nurse talks to the daughter of Mr. Dela Isla, which of the following statement of the daughter will require the nurse to give further teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it indicates a confrontational and possibly disrespectful attitude towards the nurse. This can hinder effective communication and collaboration. A: Shows understanding of hallucinations. C: Demonstrates assistance to the father. D: Reflects consideration for the father's needs. B is incorrect as it does not promote positive interaction.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following is not a criterion for a valid informed consent that a nurse should identify?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: with coercion. Informed consent must be freely given without any form of coercion to ensure the individual's autonomy and decision-making capacity. Coercion can lead to involuntary consent, undermining the principle of respect for autonomy. Choices A, C, and D are all criteria for valid informed consent. Choice A ensures the individual is voluntarily agreeing without any external pressure. Choice C ensures the individual understands the procedures involved, promoting transparency. Choice D ensures the individual is aware of alternative options, allowing for an informed decision-making process.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the ff precautions must a nurse take while caring for clients with HIV/AIDS to reduce occupational risks?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Transporting specimens of body fluid in leakproof containers reduces the risk of exposure to HIV/AIDS. This precaution ensures that any potentially infectious material is securely contained. Choice B is incorrect as fusion inhibitors are not prescribed for reducing occupational risks. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly address reducing occupational risks related to HIV/AIDS. Choice D is incorrect as it is essential for a nurse to clean the client's room, but with proper precautions in place to prevent exposure to bodily fluids.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the ff. type of eyedrops does the nurse understand is given to constrict the pupil, permitting aqueous humor to flow around the lens?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Myotic. Myotic eyedrops constrict the pupil, allowing aqueous humor to flow around the lens. Myotic agents, such as pilocarpine, work by stimulating the sphincter muscle of the iris. Osmotic eyedrops (A) reduce intraocular pressure, mydriatic eyedrops (B) dilate the pupil, and cycloplegic eyedrops (D) paralyze the ciliary muscle to prevent accommodation.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following is an adverse reaction to glipizide (Glucotrol)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. Glipizide is a sulfonylurea medication used to treat diabetes by lowering blood sugar levels. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, can be an adverse reaction as glipizide may cause vasodilation leading to a drop in blood pressure. Headache (choice A), constipation (choice C), and photosensitivity (choice D) are not common adverse reactions associated with glipizide use. Headache may occur due to other factors, constipation is more commonly associated with opioids, and photosensitivity is typically seen with certain antibiotics or NSAIDs.

Question 8 of 9

While interviewing an older female patient of Asian descent, the nurse notices that the patient looks at the ground when answering questions. What should the nurse do?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consider cultural differences during this assessment. In many Asian cultures, avoiding direct eye contact is a sign of respect, humility, or shyness, rather than an indication of depression or dishonesty. By understanding and respecting cultural norms, the nurse can build rapport and trust with the patient. This approach promotes effective communication and a positive patient-provider relationship. Option B is incorrect because forcing the patient to make eye contact may make her uncomfortable and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Option C is incorrect because assuming the patient is depressed based on cultural differences is inappropriate and may lead to misdiagnosis. Option D is incorrect because jumping to recommendations for a psychological evaluation without considering cultural differences first can be stigmatizing and unnecessary.

Question 9 of 9

A client who underwent litholapaxy surgery for removing bladder stones wants to know how long the urethral catheter needs to stay in place. Which of the ff is the correct response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The catheter should remain in place for 1-2 days. After litholapaxy surgery, the urethral catheter is typically removed within 1-2 days to prevent infection and promote healing. Keeping the catheter in place for too long can increase the risk of complications such as urinary tract infections. Options A, C, and D suggest longer durations which are not necessary and may lead to unnecessary discomfort and risks for the client. Therefore, the optimal timeframe for catheter removal post-litholapaxy surgery is within 1-2 days.

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