A client has a prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance, potentially causing dehydration. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. It is important for the client to be vigilant in monitoring and reporting these symptoms to healthcare providers to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication in the morning, increasing potassium-rich foods, or taking the medication with food are not specific instructions related to the potential side effects of Hydrochlorothiazide.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide at bedtime (Choice A) is not necessary as it can be taken at any time of the day. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice B) is more relevant for clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics. Taking Furosemide with meals (Choice D) may lead to increased diuretic effects and frequent urination.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can reduce saliva production, leading to dry mouth. To alleviate this symptom, the client should be advised to increase fluid intake or use sugar-free gum or candy. Monitoring for dry mouth is important to prevent complications such as oral health issues. Drowsiness, weight gain, and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine but are less common compared to dry mouth. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring for dry mouth as it's a more prevalent adverse effect associated with this medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Incorrect Options Rationale: - Option B, Hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. - Option C, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Valsartan use. - Option D, Hypercalcemia, is not a known adverse effect of Valsartan; instead, Valsartan can lead to hyperkalemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication before meals.' Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that should be taken before meals to be most effective in reducing stomach acid production. Taking it before meals allows the medication to inhibit the proton pumps in the stomach when they are most active, leading to better control of acid secretion. Choice B is incorrect because taking Omeprazole with food may reduce its effectiveness as food can interfere with its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as Omeprazole is more effective when taken before meals. Choice D is incorrect as Omeprazole should not be taken with antacids as they can reduce its absorption.