ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2016 Practice Exam A Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) You should stop taking this medication if you develop a rash. This information is crucial because ceftriaxone is known to cause severe allergic reactions, including skin rashes, which can be a sign of a serious adverse event like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Discontinuing the medication and seeking medical attention promptly can prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety. Option A is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of ceftriaxone. Option C is also incorrect because ceftriaxone is primarily administered via intramuscular or intravenous routes, not orally. Option D is incorrect as well because while ceftriaxone can cause the urine to turn a reddish color, not yellow. In an educational context, it is essential for nurses to understand the potential side effects and adverse reactions of medications to educate clients effectively. Teaching clients to watch for specific signs and symptoms, like a rash in the case of ceftriaxone, empowers them to take an active role in their healthcare and seek timely medical intervention when necessary.
Question 2 of 5
A client informs a healthcare professional about taking Gingko Biloba. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for a client using Gingko Biloba?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin is contraindicated for a client taking Gingko Biloba due to the potential interaction that can lead to suppressed coagulation and an increased risk of bleeding or hemorrhage. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and when combined with Gingko Biloba, which also has anticoagulant properties, the risk of bleeding complications is significantly heightened.
Question 3 of 5
A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of a client with Preeclampsia receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion, the nurse should report a urinary output of 24 mL/hr to the provider. This finding suggests oliguria, which can indicate impaired renal function or magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate is excreted by the kidneys, so a low urinary output could indicate decreased clearance of the medication, leading to potential toxicity. Option A (2+ deep tendon reflexes) is a normal finding in a client receiving magnesium sulfate due to its neuromuscular effects. Option B (2+ pedal edema) is a common symptom in preeclampsia but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate infusion. Option D (respirations 12/min) is within the normal range and not typically a concern with magnesium sulfate infusion unless respiratory depression is present. Educationally, understanding the importance of monitoring urinary output in clients receiving magnesium sulfate is crucial for safe and effective nursing care. It highlights the need for close assessment and communication with the healthcare provider to prevent complications associated with magnesium sulfate therapy.
Question 4 of 5
A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the case of a client newly diagnosed with Fibromyalgia, the nurse should anticipate the prescription of Duloxetine (Option D). Duloxetine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) that is commonly used to manage the symptoms of fibromyalgia, such as pain, fatigue, and mood disturbances. It works by increasing the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which can help alleviate the widespread pain associated with fibromyalgia. Option A, Colchicine, is primarily used to treat gout by reducing inflammation. It is not a typical medication prescribed for fibromyalgia. Option B, Hydroxychloroquine, is commonly used to treat autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. While it may help with some symptoms of fibromyalgia, it is not a first-line treatment for this condition. Option C, Auranofin, is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. It is not typically indicated for fibromyalgia. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind medication choices for fibromyalgia is crucial for nurses caring for patients with this condition. Knowing the mechanisms of action and indications for each medication can help nurses provide safe and effective care, improve patient outcomes, and collaborate with healthcare providers to optimize treatment plans for individuals with fibromyalgia.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare professional is admitting a toddler to the hospital after an Acetaminophen overdose. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering to this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, which is depleted in cases of acetaminophen overdose, thus preventing liver damage. Pegfilgrastim is a medication used to stimulate white blood cell production, misoprostol is a medication used to prevent gastric ulcers, and naltrexone is used in the management of opioid addiction and alcohol dependence, which are not indicated in the scenario described.