ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has a prescription for Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist that stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of muscarinic receptors can lead to excessive perspiration (diaphoresis) due to increased cholinergic activity, affecting sweat glands. Dry mouth, hypertension, and fecal impaction are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation.
Question 2 of 5
When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Sedation. Dextromethorphan is a common cough suppressant that can cause sedation as an adverse effect. It acts on the central nervous system to suppress the cough reflex, which can lead to drowsiness and sedation in some individuals. Option A) Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of dextromethorphan. It is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal medications or antibiotics. Option B) Anxiety is also not a typical adverse effect of dextromethorphan. It is more commonly associated with stimulant medications or drugs that affect the nervous system differently. Option D) Palpitations are not a usual adverse effect of dextromethorphan. Palpitations are more commonly associated with stimulant medications or medications that affect the cardiovascular system. In an educational context, it is important for nurses to understand the common adverse effects of medications in order to educate clients effectively. By knowing the potential side effects of dextromethorphan, nurses can provide accurate information to clients, monitor for adverse reactions, and intervene appropriately if necessary.
Question 3 of 5
A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Dyspnea. Mannitol is a medication used to reduce intracranial pressure by drawing water out of brain tissue and into the bloodstream to be excreted by the kidneys. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, can indicate fluid overload as a side effect of Mannitol administration. This is crucial to report to the provider as it could lead to worsening intracranial pressure and compromise the client's respiratory status. Option A) Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL is within normal limits and not directly related to the administration of Mannitol in this context, so it is not the priority finding to report. Option B) Urine output of 40 mL/hr is an expected outcome of Mannitol therapy as it helps increase urine output to excrete excess fluid. While monitoring urine output is important, it is not the most critical finding in this situation. Option D) Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal neurological assessment and not a concerning finding in this case unless there are other neurological symptoms present. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the side effects and expected outcomes of pharmacological interventions, as well as the need for prompt recognition and reporting of any adverse effects to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes. It emphasizes the nurse's role in monitoring and advocating for the client's well-being during pharmacological treatments.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare provider in a clinic is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, particularly in older clients taking Digoxin. Monitoring and correcting electrolyte imbalances are crucial to prevent adverse effects of digoxin therapy.
Question 5 of 5
A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half, taking it off for a headache, or applying a new patch every 48 hours are not recommended practices for managing angina with nitroglycerin patches.