ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has a prescription for Acyclovir. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Acyclovir is to increase fluid intake during therapy. Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity, potentially leading to kidney damage. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by promoting adequate renal function and drug elimination.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications.
Question 3 of 9
A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking amlodipine.
Question 4 of 9
When does regular insulin typically peak?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 9
A client has a prescription for Acyclovir. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Acyclovir is to increase fluid intake during therapy. Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity, potentially leading to kidney damage. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by promoting adequate renal function and drug elimination.
Question 6 of 9
The following is most suitable for thromboembolic prophylaxis in a patient with a left ventricular aneurysm following a myocardial infarction three months ago:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A left ventricular aneurysm post-MI risks thrombus formation due to stasis, necessitating anticoagulation. IV heparin is acute, not outpatient prophylaxis, impractical here. Subcutaneous enoxaparin prevents thromboembolism short-term (e.g., post-surgery), but its duration suits weeks, not months. Oral warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist, provides long-term anticoagulation (INR 2-3), ideal for chronic prophylaxis against mural thrombi embolizing to systemic circulation, most suitable three months post-MI. Oral aspirin (antiplatelet) or aspirin plus clopidogrel targets arterial clots, less effective for ventricular stasis-related venous thrombi. Warfarin's sustained effect reduces stroke risk, critical in this structural heart defect.
Question 7 of 9
What is levothyroxine's pharmacologic classification?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 9 of 9
A 44-year-old man who is a chronic smoker and takes bupropion takes 10 pills at once in an attempted suicide. Which of the following effects is possible as a result of this overdose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bupropion overdose (10 pills) risks seizures , due to lowered seizure threshold, a known toxicity. Dry mouth , nervousness , and sexual dysfunction are side effects, not overdose-specific. Sweating (E) is minor. Seizures align with his smoking cessation attempt gone awry.