ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Omeprazole. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
When teaching a client with a new prescription for Sulfasalazine, which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client with a new prescription for Sulfasalazine is to expect orange discoloration of urine and skin. Sulfasalazine can cause this harmless side effect, which does not necessitate discontinuation of the medication. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this expected outcome to prevent unnecessary concern or discontinuation of the medication.
Question 4 of 5
Individuals who are slow acetylators (i.e. have a relatively low activity of hepatic N-acetyltransferase):
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Slow acetylators have reduced hepatic N-acetyltransferase (NAT2) activity, affecting metabolism of drugs like hydralazine, isoniazid, and procainamide. In European Caucasians, prevalence is actually 50-60%, not 15-20%, making that statement inaccurate. Gold treatment side effects like thrombocytopenia or nephrotic syndrome aren't strongly linked to acetylation status, but rather to immune responses, so that's less relevant. Halothane hepatotoxicity relates to immune-mediated reactions or metabolites, not acetylation speed. Hydralazine, metabolized by NAT2, accumulates in slow acetylators, increasing risk of drug-induced lupus with antinuclear antibodies (ANA), a well-documented association. Agranulocytosis with clozapine isn't tied to acetylation but to idiosyncratic reactions. The ANA risk with hydralazine is the most accurate, reflecting its pharmacogenetic implications, critical for personalized dosing and monitoring.
Question 5 of 5
The following is most suitable for thromboembolic prophylaxis in a patient with a left ventricular aneurysm following a myocardial infarction three months ago:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A left ventricular aneurysm post-MI risks thrombus formation due to stasis, necessitating anticoagulation. IV heparin is acute, not outpatient prophylaxis, impractical here. Subcutaneous enoxaparin prevents thromboembolism short-term (e.g., post-surgery), but its duration suits weeks, not months. Oral warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist, provides long-term anticoagulation (INR 2-3), ideal for chronic prophylaxis against mural thrombi embolizing to systemic circulation, most suitable three months post-MI. Oral aspirin (antiplatelet) or aspirin plus clopidogrel targets arterial clots, less effective for ventricular stasis-related venous thrombi. Warfarin's sustained effect reduces stroke risk, critical in this structural heart defect.