ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil can cause constipation as a side effect. Increasing fiber intake can help prevent constipation. High-fiber foods promote bowel regularity and can counteract the constipating effects of Verapamil.
Question 2 of 9
Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that help the body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production, reducing fluid retention, and lowering blood pressure.
Question 3 of 9
A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.
Question 4 of 9
A client has a new prescription for Ondansetron for nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is that the client may experience a headache while taking Ondansetron. Headache is a common side effect of this medication, and clients need to be informed about this potential adverse reaction to enhance their understanding and management of side effects.
Question 5 of 9
A client receiving chemotherapy with Methotrexate asks why Leucovorin is being given. Which of the following responses should the nurse use?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Leucovorin, a folic acid derivative and an antagonist to Methotrexate, is given within 12 hours of high doses of Methotrexate to protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate. It helps to reduce the bone marrow suppression and gastrointestinal side effects caused by Methotrexate, supporting the client's overall well-being during chemotherapy treatment.
Question 6 of 9
A client has a prescription for Acyclovir. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Acyclovir is to increase fluid intake during therapy. Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity, potentially leading to kidney damage. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by promoting adequate renal function and drug elimination.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer morphine 4 mg IV to a client. Available is morphine 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To administer 4 mg from a solution of 10 mg/mL, the healthcare professional should administer 0.4 mL. The calculation is done by dividing the desired dose (4 mg) by the concentration of the solution (10 mg/mL), which equals 0.4 mL.
Question 8 of 9
What is a common side effect of Albuterol?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A common side effect of Albuterol is paradoxical bronchospasm, a condition where the airways become more constricted instead of relaxing, which can be a serious adverse reaction to the medication.
Question 9 of 9
Which drug type used to treat depression works by preventing enzymatic destruction of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: MAOIs (e.g., phenelzine) block monoamine oxidase, preserving norepinephrine, per pharmacology-unlike SNRIs/SSRIs (reuptake) or TCAs (mixed). MAOIs' mechanism fits, boosting mood.